ECN 301 Chapter Notes - Chapter 3: Marginal Utility, New-Age Music, Whip

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3 Oct 2017

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Suppose that we fix capital k at its actual 2012 value of billion and hold productivity a at its actual 2012 value of 24. 04 (see table 3. 1, p. 50): the production function (eq. 3. 2) becomes: this relationship is shown graphically in figure 3. 2. Point a, where n = 17. 5 million workers and y = billion, corresponds to the actual 2012 values. In addition, the supply shock shown reduces the slope of the production function so that the output gains from adding a worker (the marginal product of labour) are lower at every level of employment. Firms view the wage of the workers they hire as being determined in a competitive labour market and not set by the firms themselves. For example, a competitive firm that wants to hire machinists knows that it must pay the going local wage for machinists if it wants to attract qualified workers: the firm then decides how many machinists to employ.

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Part I. Multiple Choice Questions. Please circle the right answer (one mark each)

1. Which of the following are economic goods?

a. Atlantic Ocean sea water.

b. Iowa farm land.

c. California coast line.

d. All of the above.

e. All of the above, except a.

2. The three fundamental questions of economic organization are:

a. closely related to the concept of scarcity.

b. not nearly as important today as they were at the dawn of civilization.

c. what, how, and why.

d. land, labor, and capital.

e. all of the above.

3. Which of the following statements applies to a mixed economy?

a. There is confusion and a lack of organization.

b. The allocation of resources changes from production period to production period.

c. There are no real examples of truly mixed economies.

d. Mixed economies include aspects of both market and command economies.

e. None of the above statements apply.

4. Capital is:

a. the same as money.

b. the headquarters of economic planning.

c. both an input and an output.

d. all of the above.

e. none of the above.

5. Land, labor, and capital are:

a. available only in finite amounts.

b. used to produce outputs.

c. the primary factors of production.

d. combined with technology in the production process.

e. all of the above.

6. Which of the statements below does not apply to the production-possibility frontier, or PPF?

a. The PPF is closely related to the concept of scarcity.

b. Quantities of inputs are measured along the axes of the PPF.

c. The PPF may shift over time.

d. Movements along the PPF may occur as the allocation of resources changes.

e. Technology may change the shape of the PPF.

7. Which of the statements below is a reason why an economy might produce a level of output that is beneath its production-possibility frontier?

a. The available resources are not equally suited to the production of both outputs.

b. The available body of technological knowledge is not being fully utilized.

c. Society prefers one product over the other.

d. In reality, economies produce thousands of goods not just two.

e. There are no frontiers left anymore.

8. In order to shift the PPF out (above and to the right), an economy would have to:

a. somehow increase its stock of inputs.

b. remove some incompetent bureaucrats from their jobs.

c. eliminate the sources of significant abuse of monopoly power.

d. all of the above.

e. none of the above.

9. Sana notices that no matter how many paper cups she buys, she always pays the same price per cup. This means that the supply curve which confronts her is:

a. perfectly inelastic.

b. perfectly elastic.

c. unit-elastic.

d. elastic, but not necessarily perfectly elastic.

e. none of these things, necessarily

10. A perfectly inelastic supply curve would be shown in the ordinary supply-and-demand graph as a:

a. vertical line.

b. horizontal line.

c. straight line, but neither horizontal nor vertical.

d. curved line.

e. any of the above.

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

1) Which of the following is true of the typical relationship between marginal product (MP) and average product (AP)?

A) The AP curve intersects the MP curve at minimum MP.

B) If MP is less than AP, then AP is increasing.

C) If MP is greater than AP, then AP is falling.

D) The MP curve intersects the AP curve at maximum AP.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2) If, for a particular short-run production, we observe that marginal product is decreasing we can conclude that average product is decreasing as well.

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

3) An implicit cost is defined as:

A) the amount by which the money spent on an input to production exceeds its opportunity cost.

B) the difference between an input's explicit cost and its actual cost.

C) the opportunity cost of using a resource that is not explicitly paid out by the firm.

D) the amount by which economic profit exceeds accounting profit.

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

4) The amount of output a firm can produce with a given quantity of fixed and variable inputs is called:

A) total fixed product.

B) average variable product.

C) marginal product.

D) total product.

5) Which of the following statements is true of the relationship among the average cost functions?

A) AFC = ATC + AVC

B) ATC = AFC - AVC
C) AVC = AFC + ATC

D) AFC = ATC - AVC

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

6) A firm's production function is the relationship between the factors of production and the resulting outputs of the production process.

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

Scenario 2:
Output (Q): 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

Total Cost (TC): $24 $33 $41 $48 $54 $61 $69

7) Refer to Scenario 2. Diminishing marginal returns starts to occur between units:

A) 2 and 3.

B) 3 and 4.

C) 4 and 5.

D) 5 and 6.

8) Which of the following would be classified as a short-run decision?

A) trucking firm's decision to move to a smaller facility.

B) A firm's decision to decrease the amount of electricity used in day-to-day operations by encouraging employees to adopt conservation strategies, e.g., shut off lights when leaving a room.

C) A university's decision to add a new residence hall.

D) A restaurant's decision to increase the number of patrons it can accommodate by adding on a new dining room.

9) Economic profit is equal to the difference between: 9)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

10) At the point where a firm incurs diminishing marginal returns, total product will begin to decline.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) In the context of a production function, the remote order takers in the fast food industry would be classified as:

A) a fixed input.

B) a marginal input.

C) an inframarginal input.

D) a variable input.

Scenario 3:
Total Product (Q): 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

Total Cost (TC): $50 $80 $105 $125 $155 $195 $250

12.

13.

increase; lower

decrease; lower

increase; higher

decrease; higher

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

14.

15.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16) A labor-intensive method of production is one that:
A) combines a small but sophisticated labor force with a large amount of capital.

B) requires employees to work harder than they would in other occupations.
C) relies on large quantities of labor and smaller quantities of capital equipment. D) relies exclusively on labor.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

17) Assume a firm produces 500 units of a good by using two inputs, capital and labor, whose per unit prices are $10 and $4. Assume also that the marginal physical product of the last unit of capital is 30 and the marginal physical product of the last unit of labor is 10. To minimize costs this firm should employ:

A) more labor and less capital. B) more capital and less labor.
C) the existing combination of resources. D) both more labor and more capital.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

18) All else constant, a decrease in the per unit price of labor would create an incentive for a firm manager to substitute labor for capital in the firm's production process.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

19) All else constant, as the price of petroleum increases relative to the prices of other inputs to the production process, in their effort to minimize their total costs of production, we can expect to see firms employ:

A) the same amount of petroleum since there are no substitutes for petroleum. B) less petroleum and more of the other inputs to production.
C) less of each of the inputs of production.

D) more petroleum and less of the other inputs to production.

coffeewoodchuck827

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

ECN 301 Chapter Notes - Chapter 3: Marginal Utility, New-Age Music, Whip

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