ECON 465 Chapter : PS4 Solutions.doc

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Chapter 12- # 3: for q1 k 1 : mr1=100 2q2 4q1=w=20 , which gives and for q1> k 1 : mr1=100 2q2 4q1=w+ r=40 , which gives, mr2=100 2q1 4q2=w+ r=40 , which gives q2=15 q1. If the incumbent chooses the monopolist or stackelberg quantity, k 1=15 , the entrant responds with q2=15 15. =7. 5: if the incumbent chooses k 1=16 , and the entrant enters and produces will make a loss 2=[100 2 (23) 40 ] 7 100= 2 . q2=15 16. , the entrant: thus, if the incumbent commits to k 1=16 , the entrant does not enter, and the incumbent will make a profit of 1=[100 2(16) 40] 16 100=348 as the sole producer. If the incumbent were a low cost one, it would behave as a low cost firm. Now, suppose that the incumbent is high cost, but it behaves as a low cost one.

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Cray Computer, Inc., located in Colorado Springs, Colorado, is a privately-held producer of high-speed electronic computers with immense storage capacity and computing capability. Although the Crays market is restricted to industrial users and a few large government agencies (e.g., Department of Health, NASA, National Weather Service, etc.), the company has profitably exploited its market niche.

Glen Cray, founder and research director, has recently announced his retirement, the timing of which will, unfortunately, coincide with the expiration of several patents covering key aspects of the Cray computer. Your company, a potential entrant into the market for supercomputers, has asked you to evaluate the short- and longer-run potential of this market. Based on data gathered from your company's engineering department, user surveys, trade associations, and other sources, the following market Demand and cost information has been developed:

P = $54 - $1.5Q

TC = $200 + $6Q + $0.5Q²

where P is the price, Q is units measured by the number of supercomputers, TC is total costs, including a normal rate of return and all figures are in millions of dollars.

A. Assume that these demand and cost data are descriptive of Cray's historical experience.

i.Calculate the profit-maximizing output, price, and economic profit earned by Cray Computer as a monopolist.

ii. What is the point price elasticity of demand at this output level?

B. After the patents expire and barriers to entry are eliminated, the market structure changes.

i.If the new entrants have the same total cost structure as Cray, and a competitive equilibrium results.

ii. What will the output of one firm be after all adjustment has taken place; and what will the price be in the market?

iii. What will one firm's profits be?

C. Assume as in B that barriers to entry are eliminated and all entrants have the same cost conditions; however, firms are able to differentiate their products in the eyes of their customers.

i. What will the output of one firm be after all adjustments have taken place?

ii. What will the price be? (Assume that entry causes a parallel shift in the demand curve, as in the monopolistic competitive market).

iii. What will the firm's profits be?

D. Assume that the point price elasticity of demand calculated in part A is a good estimate of the relevant arc price elasticity. What are the estimates for the potential overall market size (i.e., total quantity demanded in the market) for super-computers in B and C?

E.If no other near-term entrants are anticipated, should your company enter the market for supercomputers using the estimates of the market size in D? Why or why not? (Hint: Criterion for entry: if in the longer-run equilibrium the total quantity demanded in the market is greater or equal to the sum of the amounts produced by two firms. There is room for another firm.)

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Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

(Please show as much work as possible)

1. You are bidding in a second-price auction for a painting that you value at $800. You estimate that other bidders are most likely to value the painting at between $200 and $600. Which of these is likely to be your best bid?

a. $1,000

b. $800

c. $600

d. $400

2. Which of the following is true about different ways of conducting a private-value auction?

a. A first-price auction is strategically equivalent to a second-price auction.

b. A first-price auction is strategically equivalent to an English auction.

c. A second-price auction is strategically equivalent to an English auction.

d. None of the above

3. Suppose that five bidders with values of $500, $400, $300, $200, and $100 attend an oral auction. Which of these is closest to the winning price?

a. $500

b. $400

c. $300

d. $200

4. In the above auction, if the bidders with the first- and third-highest values ($500 and

$300) collude, which of these is closest to the winning price?

a. $500

b. $400

c. $300

d. $200

5. If a seller is concerned about collusion among bidders, which of the following changes to the auction, should the seller make?

a. Hold frequent, small auctions instead of infrequent large auctions.

b. Conceal the amount of winning bids.

c. Publically announce the name of each auction's winner.

d. Hold a second-price instead of a first-price auction.

6. You're holding an auction to license a new technology that your company has developed. One of your assistants raises a concern that bidders' fear of the winner's curse may encourage them to shade their bids. How might you address this concern?

a. Release your analyst's positive scenario for the technology's future profitability.

b. Release your analyst's negative scenario for the technology's future profitability.

c. Use an oral auction.

d. All of the above

7. In a first-price auction, you bid ________ your value, and in a second-price auction you bid _________ your value.

a. at; above

b. below; above

c. below; at

d. below; below

8. You hold an auction among three bidders. You estimate that each bidder has a value of either $16 or $20 for the item, and you attach probabilities to each value of 50%. What is the expected price? If two of the three bidders collude, what is the price?

9. In Sweden, firms that fail to meet their debt obligations are immediately auctioned off to the highest bidder. (There is no reorganization through Chapter 11 bankruptcy.) The current managers are often high bidders for the company. Why?

10. When a famous painting becomes available for sale, it is often known which museum or collector will be the likely winner. Yet, representatives of other museums that have no chance of winning are actively wooed by the auctioneer to attend anyway. Why?

11. The deities Mars and Venus often do battle to create the weather conditions on Earth. Venus prefers extreme temperatures (especially heat), while Mars prefers temperate conditions. The payoffs (expressed in Points of Wrath) are given below.

		Venus
		Warm	Chill
Mars	Warm	20 , 0	0 , 10
Chill	0 , 90	20 , 0

What is the unique mixed-strategy equilibrium of the above game?

(Let p be the probability of "Warm" for Mars, and q the probability of "Warm" for Venus.)

a) p=9/10, q=1/2

b) p=1/2, q=1/10

c) p=1/2, q=1/2

d) p=1/10, q=1/10

Player 2

		H	D
Player 1	H	0 , 0	4 , 1
D	1 , 4	2 , 2

12. The above game is the title of the hawk-dove game and used by evolutionary biologists to describe evolutionary processes. It is also used to model how a business should grow. In the above game, what is the Nash equilibrium in pure strategies and mixed strategies.?

Assume the cost of producing the goods is zero and that each consumer will purchase each good as long as the price is less than or equal to value. Consumer values are the entries in the table.

	Good 1	Good 2
Consumer A	$2,300	$1,700
Consumer B	$2,800	$1,200

13. Suppose the monopolist only sold the goods separately. What price will the monopolist charge for good 1 to maximize revenues for good 1?

a. $2,300

b. $2,800

c. $1,200

d. $1,700

14. What is the total profit to the monopolist from selling the goods separately?

a. $4,500

b. $6,300

c. $7,000

d. $6,000

15. What is a better pricing strategy for the monopolist? At this price, what are the total profits to the monopolist?

a. Bundle the goods at $2,800; Profits = $5,600

b. Bundle the goods at $4,000; Profits = $8,000

c. Charge $2,800 for good 1 and charge $1,700 for good 2; Profits = $4,500

d. Charging the lowest price for each good individually is the best pricing strategy; Profits = $7,000

16. The prisoners' dilemma is an example of

a. a sequential game.

b. a simultaneous game.

c.a shirking game.

d. a dating game

17. Nash equilibrium

a. is where one player maximizes his payoff, and the other doesn't.

b. is where each player maximizes his own payoff given the action of the other player.

c.is where both players are maximizing their total payoff.

d. is a unique prediction of the likely outcome of a game.

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ECON 465 Chapter : PS4 Solutions.doc

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