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ADM 2336 Chapter Notes - Chapter 1-6: 360-Degree Feedback, Boosterism, Job Design

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sangriaelk277
9 Dec 2017
School
University of Ottawa
Department
Administration
Course
ADM 2336
Professor
Jane O' Reilly

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Document Summary

It is the field of study that predicts, explains and manages the attitude or behaviour of individuals and groups in an organization. Understand how the organization and managers cold be managed more effectively by focusing on human behavior. Who is fredrick taylor and why is he important to the field of organizational. Best way to perform each task match a worker to each ask closely supervise [use rewards and punishers] management should plan and control. The field of study that focuses on the application of ob theories and principles. It is the field of study that focuses on the product choice and industry characteristics that enable the organization to gain a profit. The belief that at best one eighth or 12 percent of organizations will actually do what is required to build profits and put the people first. Develop a theory, test a hypothesis, analyze data and verify.

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Related Questions

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

Business management

QUESTION 1

  1. Which of the following outlines the organization's purpose, assumptions, values, and direction?

    Mission

    Purpose

    Strategic plan

    Strategic goal

    Tactical goal

2 points

QUESTION 2

  1. Scientific management focuses on

    improving the efficiency of the individual worker.

    managing the overall organization.

    using capital more efficiently.

    enhancing the social aspects of the workplace.

    creating mathematical models of organization processes.

2 points

QUESTION 3

  1. The idea that manufacturing costs per unit decrease as the number of units produced increases is known as

    economies of scale.

    venture capitalism.

    a franchising agreement.

    first-mover advantage.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 4

  1. The component of strategy that indicates how the organization intends to allocate resources is

    resource deployment.

    scope.

    competitive advantage.

    synergy.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 5

  1. The process of choosing one alternative from among many alternatives is called

    satisficing.

    problem solving.

    bounded rationality.

    decision making.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 6

  1. Mercedes-Benz sells high quality automobiles at high prices. It uses a(n)

    differentiation strategy.

    low-cost strategy.

    diversification strategy.

    related diversification strategy.

    BCG strategy.

2 points

QUESTION 7

  1. Which of the following is NOT generally considered to be a role performed by small businesses?

    Creation of new jobs

    Development of new products

    Manufacture of materials for large businesses

    Distribution of products made by large businesses

    Provision of capital for expansion of large businesses

2 points

QUESTION 8

  1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of group decision making?

    More alternatives are likely to be generated.

    More information will be brought to bear on the problem.

    More time will be needed to make the decision.

    More communication about the decision will result.

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 9

  1. Which of the following is an example of an owner of a business?

    Individual investors who buy stock in that business

    Partners

    People who have legal property rights to that business

    Individuals who finance and start up a new business

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 10

  1. The best alternative is the most ____ alternative.

    efficient

    controllable

    profitable

    effective

    valid

2 points

QUESTION 11

  1. Which of the following decision-making models is based on the belief that human behavior is often imperfect?

    Rational

    Emotional

    Classical

    Behavioral

    Sequential

2 points

QUESTION 12

  1. A disadvantage of using interacting groups to make decisions is

    group politics.

    a void of expert opinion.

    an increase in programmed costs.

    faster decision making.

    too much brainstorming.

2 points

QUESTION 13

  1. Nokia and Samsung make cell phones that operate on the Microsoft system. They operate in the ____ industry.

    transportation

    manufacturing

    retailing

    services

    wholesaling

2 points

QUESTION 14

  1. All of the following are advantages of group decision making EXCEPT

    groupthink may occur.

    better decisions generally emerge.

    enhanced communication may result.

    more information and knowledge are available.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 15

  1. Facebook operates in which industry?

    Construction

    Wholesaling

    Manufacturing

    Services

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 16

  1. Four friends home from college want to start a moving business to earn money during the summer. To determine whether this is a good idea, they need to find the answer to which of the following questions?

    Who are my customers, and where are they?

    Who are my competitors, and where are they?

    How can I differentiate my product from that of my competitors?

    In what quantities and at what price will my customers buy my service?

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 17

  1. The classical management perspective consists of

    scientific management and administrative management.

    management science and scientific management.

    behavioral management and the operations management.

    contemporary management and behavioral management.

    contingency management and universal management.

2 points

QUESTION 18

  1. Which of the following persons is a manager?

    Cardinal Timothy Dolan, Archbishop of New York

    Nick Saban, football coach at the University of Alabama

    Linda Kaplan Thaler, chief creative officer of Kaplan Thaler Group

    Marissa Mayer, CEO of Yahoo

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 19

  1. Organizations that provide resources to other organizations are known as

    suppliers.

    competitors.

    regulators.

    interest groups.

    importers.

2 points

QUESTION 20

  1. A(n) ____ strategy requires little initial investment, is heavily regulated, and provides little opportunity to modify products for local conditions.

    importing/exporting

    licensing

    joint venture

    direct investment

    global sourcing

2 points

QUESTION 21

  1. All of the following are included in the task environment of organizations EXCEPT

    competitors.

    customers.

    regulators.

    suppliers.

    the economy.

2 points

QUESTION 22

  1. "Decision making under risk" means the decision maker

    has no data on which to base his or her decision.

    is risk-averse, avoiding risky investments.

    knows all the risks involved in the decision.

    can estimate decision data with some probability.

    is making an important decision with long- term consequences.

2 points

QUESTION 23

  1. A standing plan that outlines the steps to be followed in a particular circumstance is called a(n)

    SOP.

    single-use plan.

    policy.

    contingency plan.

    program.

2 points

QUESTION 24

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for new business failure described in your text?

    Sufficient capital

    Incompetence

    Neglect

    Weak control systems

    Inexperience

2 points

QUESTION 25

  1. Interpersonal skills enable managers

    to take an overall view of how the parts of the organization interrelate and to think strategically.

    to solve detailed problems for their subordinates.

    to understand and interact effectively with others in the organization.

    to diagnose organizational problems correctly.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 26

  1. Herbert Simon noted that managers generally fail to make rational decisions because they are limited by their own values, skills, habits, and unconscious reflexes as well as by incomplete information. What name did Simon give this phenomenon?

    Satisficing

    Bounded rationality

    Brainstorming

    Rational decision making

    Decision framing

2 points

QUESTION 27

  1. Nike and Reebok are best described as

    strategic allies.

    competitors.

    customers.

    regulators.

    suppliers.

2 points

QUESTION 28

  1. The first person to identify the managerial functions of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling was

    Elton Mayo.

    Lillian Gilbreth.

    Henri Fayol.

    Hugo Munsterberg.

    Mary Parker Follett.

2 points

QUESTION 29

  1. Strategic goals are set by

    first-line managers.

    middle managers.

    top managers.

    stockholders.

    All of these.

2 points

QUESTION 30

  1. Using the BCG matrix, SBUs are classified on the basis of

    market growth rate and cash generation potential.

    market share and market growth rate.

    competitive advantage and financial strength.

    a strategic business unit and product life cycle.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 31

  1. ____ skills are needed for specialized tasks within the organization.

    Human

    Organizational

    Conceptual

    Technical

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 32

  1. McGraw Hill operates in publishing and construction. This is an example of ____ diversification.

    differentiation

    unrelated

    single-product

    BCG

    related

2 points

QUESTION 33

  1. The management pioneer who performed the Hawthorne studies at Western Electric was

    Lillian Gilbreth.

    Elton Mayo.

    Henry Gantt.

    Frank Gilbreth.

    Frederick Taylor.

2 points

QUESTION 34

  1. An organization's obligation to protect and enhance the society in which it operates is called

    legal responsibility.

    ethical responsibility.

    social responsibility.

    cultural responsibility.

    societal responsibility.

2 points

QUESTION 35

  1. An entrepreneur does all of the following EXCEPT

    operate.

    organize.

    plan.

    assume risk.

    hire a professional manager.

2 points

QUESTION 36

  1. The primary purpose of the management process is to

    develop organizational goals and make logical decisions.

    organize the various functions in a logical manner.

    ensure that all employees are working together effectively.

    achieve organizational goals efficiently and effectively.

    make sure things go as planned.

2 points

QUESTION 37

  1. How do top managers spend most of their time?

    Overseeing day-to-day operations

    Routine administrative tasks

    Implementing plans of first-line managers

    Making decisions and creating goals

    Coordinating the work of first-line managers

2 points

QUESTION 38

  1. In the classical decision making model, "optimization" means

    implementing two or more alternatives simultaneously.

    choosing the alternative with the best overall expected outcomes.

    gathering the most complete information before making the decision.

    reaching a satisfactory level of performance.

    None of these.

2 points

QUESTION 39

  1. A written summary of the business strategy and its implementation plan is known as

    a niche summary.

    a first-mover advantage.

    a business plan.

    economies of scale.

    a franchise agreement.

2 points

QUESTION 40

  1. The aspects of a business that the firm performs at a higher level than its competitors are known as the firm's

    niches.

    capital-intensiveness.

    distinctive competencies.

    strategic weakness.

    first-mover advantage.

2 points

QUESTION 41

  1. For a Perkins restaurant, which of the following would be considered to be a supplier?

    A family of 5

    Wendy

22jul15

Q1. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q2. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q3. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q4. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q5. What is the most useful role for the external leader of a self-managed group?
a. select new members of the group when they are needed
b. mediate internal conflicts and encourage cooperation
c. monitor the group to ensure it does not become a social club
d. serve as a coach, facilitator, and advocate for the group

Q6. Which is not characteristic of Bradford's group-centered leadership?
a. the leader should emphasize group maintenance behavior as much as task oriented behavior
b. the leader should encourage members to share the responsibility for performing leadership functions
c. the leader should strive to maintain a rational discussion without emotional outbursts or expression of feelings
d. the leader should allow the group to make the final choice

Q7. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q8. Which leadership function is especially important when a cross-functional team is initially formed to carry out a project?
a. planning and scheduling team activities to meet project deadlines
b. influencing outsiders to provide adequate resources, approvals, and assistance
c. articulating a vision or objective that inspires commitment by team members
d. mediating conflicts among members and helping them find integrative solutions

Q9. Which of the following is least likely to be a reason for an organization's failure to adapt to a changing environment?
a. leaders with a long-term perspective
b. highly specialized subunits
c. declining financial performance
d. institutionalization of power

Q10. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q11. What pattern of behavior is most likely for a CEO who has been in office for 3-4 years?
a. after the CEO consolidates power, he or she becomes more willing to experiment with innovative strategies
b. as the CEO gains confidence with a strategy that is working, he or she becomes more excited about gathering information to improve it
c. after the CEO selects a strategy and implements it, he or she becomes complacent and inflexible about changing it
d. after the CEO institutionalizes power, he or she becomes more willing to allow others to participate in making major decisions

Q12. Which condition does not limit a chief executive's discretion to make major changes in the strategy of an organization?
a. the organization has a few major clients who account for most sales
b. the organization has ample financial reserves
c. the culture of the organization is strong
d. the organization has a strong board of directors

Q13. When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to:
a. maintain a high level of external monitoring
b. have detailed plans and operating procedures
c. increase the power of the chief executive
d. strengthen the organization culture

Q14. When an organization has declining performance, a CEO who has been in office for several years is least likely to:
a. look for ways to improve implementation of the existing strategy
b. make small, incremental changes in the strategy
c. give a pep talk and urge people to redouble their effort
d. make major changes in the organization's strategy

Q15. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q16. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q17. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q18. What training method is most useful for improving interpersonal skills?
a. computer simulations
b. behavior role modeling
c. large scale simulations
d. analysis of short cases

Q19. Which of the following was not recommended for effective training?
a. use concrete examples, diagrams, and mnemonics in explanations
b. relate training objectives to the person's interests and career ambitions
c. integrate complex material into longer learning modules
d. allow ample opportunity for practice with feedback

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops