ADM 2337 Chapter 7: ADM2337 Midterm Notes Chapter 7

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pinkguinea-pig341

17 Mar 2017

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Organization analysis examination of environment, resources of company, to determine where training programs should be placed. Task analysis reviews job description and specifications to identify activities performed by the job and the. Competency assessment assessment of skills and knowledge needed for decision oriented and knowledge- intensive jobs. Person analysis ide(cid:374)tif(cid:455)i(cid:374)g people (cid:449)ho (cid:374)eeds t(cid:396)ai(cid:374)i(cid:374)g a(cid:374)d (cid:449)ho does(cid:374)"t. Behaviour modification behaviour that is rewarded or positively reinforced will be committed more frequently in the future, whereas behaviour that is penalized or dismissed will decreased in frequency. Spot rewards programs that awards employees on the spot when they do something particularly well during training or on the job. Phase 3: implementing the training program training delivery methods. On the job training employees given hand-on experience with instructions by supervisor or trainer: proper way to do on job training. Apprenticeship training worker in skills-trade given instruction and experiences in practical and theoretical aspects.

Related Questions

22jul15

Q1. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q2. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q3. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q4. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q5. What is the most useful role for the external leader of a self-managed group?
a. select new members of the group when they are needed
b. mediate internal conflicts and encourage cooperation
c. monitor the group to ensure it does not become a social club
d. serve as a coach, facilitator, and advocate for the group

Q6. Which is not characteristic of Bradford's group-centered leadership?
a. the leader should emphasize group maintenance behavior as much as task oriented behavior
b. the leader should encourage members to share the responsibility for performing leadership functions
c. the leader should strive to maintain a rational discussion without emotional outbursts or expression of feelings
d. the leader should allow the group to make the final choice

Q7. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q8. Which leadership function is especially important when a cross-functional team is initially formed to carry out a project?
a. planning and scheduling team activities to meet project deadlines
b. influencing outsiders to provide adequate resources, approvals, and assistance
c. articulating a vision or objective that inspires commitment by team members
d. mediating conflicts among members and helping them find integrative solutions

Q9. Which of the following is least likely to be a reason for an organization's failure to adapt to a changing environment?
a. leaders with a long-term perspective
b. highly specialized subunits
c. declining financial performance
d. institutionalization of power

Q10. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q11. What pattern of behavior is most likely for a CEO who has been in office for 3-4 years?
a. after the CEO consolidates power, he or she becomes more willing to experiment with innovative strategies
b. as the CEO gains confidence with a strategy that is working, he or she becomes more excited about gathering information to improve it
c. after the CEO selects a strategy and implements it, he or she becomes complacent and inflexible about changing it
d. after the CEO institutionalizes power, he or she becomes more willing to allow others to participate in making major decisions

Q12. Which condition does not limit a chief executive's discretion to make major changes in the strategy of an organization?
a. the organization has a few major clients who account for most sales
b. the organization has ample financial reserves
c. the culture of the organization is strong
d. the organization has a strong board of directors

Q13. When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to:
a. maintain a high level of external monitoring
b. have detailed plans and operating procedures
c. increase the power of the chief executive
d. strengthen the organization culture

Q14. When an organization has declining performance, a CEO who has been in office for several years is least likely to:
a. look for ways to improve implementation of the existing strategy
b. make small, incremental changes in the strategy
c. give a pep talk and urge people to redouble their effort
d. make major changes in the organization's strategy

Q15. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q16. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q17. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q18. What training method is most useful for improving interpersonal skills?
a. computer simulations
b. behavior role modeling
c. large scale simulations
d. analysis of short cases

Q19. Which of the following was not recommended for effective training?
a. use concrete examples, diagrams, and mnemonics in explanations
b. relate training objectives to the person's interests and career ambitions
c. integrate complex material into longer learning modules
d. allow ample opportunity for practice with feedback

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

tealbadger30

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

Bill Jobs has decided to start a computer company called CompU in Joplin. He knows that many MSSU students, who are now required to own and operate a personal computer, are having difficulty setting up their computers, accessing various materials from MSSUâs network and from the internet, and installing new programs as they become available. Billâs plan is to provide a service to the students by helping students set up their computers, show them how to access various databases, and offer an e-mail help desk for any problems that arise. Bill also wants to develop a website that will be a seamless portal to the internet and the campus intranet.

If things go well, Bill plans to sell computers with all the required software preinstalled to students, and develop the website that includes links to various businesses and services that students like, and to offer advertising services (and charge for the links) to local businesses. For example, a student could use the web site to order pizza delivery while studying for a financial management exam.

Once Bill has established CompU and developed the necessary operating procedures, he plans to expand to other colleges and universities in the area, and eventually go nationwide. At some point Bill plans to take CompU public with an IPO.

1. When Bill first begins CompU, if he is the only employee and only his money is invested in the company, would any agency problems exist? As he expands and hires additional people at CompU, might agency problems arise? When Bill first begins, what type of business organization will CompU be?

2. If Bill needs capital to buy his computer inventory to sell to students or develop software to run the website and the business, might this lead to agency problems? Would it matter if the new capital came in the form of an unsecured bank loan, a bank loan secured by the inventory, or from new stockholders (if Bill incorporates CompU)? What other sources of capital could Bill use?

3. Would potential agency problems increase or decrease if Bill expands operations to other campuses? Would the agency problems be affected by whether he expands by licensing franchisees or by direct expansion, where CompU actually owns the businesses on other campuses and operates them as divisions of CompU?

4. What action or actions can you think of that might minimize agency problems for CompU as Bill expands beyond MSSU? Would going public in an IPO increase or decrease agency problems?

5. If CompU is successful, what kind of compensation program could Bill use to minimize agency problems?

6. If Bill hires someone whom he can train to manage one of the new divisions he plans to open at other campuses, would it matter whether or not that person understood something about financial management? If two people were applying for a job that would lead to a managerial position, should Bill be interested primarily in the personâs technical skills or in a combination of technical skills and a vision of how different functions within CompU fit together?

7. CompU is successful, and the before-tax earnings for the first year are $90,000. Calculate the tax on these earnings using Table 2.1.

maroonotter699

ADM 2337 Chapter 7: ADM2337 Midterm Notes Chapter 7

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