INGS1001 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Fernand Braudel, Industrial Revolution, Biblioteca Europea Di Informazione E Cultura
23 May 2018
School
Department
Course
Professor
Lecture Post 6
Anastassia Simonian
4 March 2017
Reading:
Marks, The Origins of the Modern World, Ch. 5
Questions:
1. When did the gap between the industrialized world and the third world
emerge? What evidence is cited?
1700 - 1890 the span over which dramatic changes occur
By 1900, India accounted for barely 2 percent of world manufacturing output
and China at about 7 percent. Conversely, Europe alone claimed 60% and the U.S
20% coming to 80% all together. This is in stark contrast to the eighteenth
century where China, India and Europe were broadly comparable in terms of
economic development and various other factors like life expectancies and a
standard of living. Where India and China accounted for half of the wealth of the
world in the 18th Century, by the 19th Century they had become among the
least industrialized and the poorest.
From 1750, to 1850, China and India became relatively poorer with growing
populations and less wealth being created, particularly in comparison with the
Europeans and Americans becoming wealthier.
Moreover, neither China or India was industrializing resulting in cities that could
not accommodate larger populations and thus an intensifying rural poverty.
However, to attribute this growing gap simply to the realisation of the market
economy is oversimplifying, as in the words of historian Fernand Braudel.
There is no evidence to suggest an inherent superiority of europeans, but rather,
Europeans had colonies that supplied them with huge amounts of "free" energy
(sugar, cotton, timber, codfish.) Or, as in the case of the British, having coal
deposits close by.
The gap also reflects a division between those who remained within the
biological old regime and those that began to industrialize.
Creating divide amongst nations but also within - those that owned factories and
those that worked in them.
2. How did free trade work to India’s disadvantage in the nineteenth
century? How did it work to Britain’s advantage?
The nineteenth century marks an important historical conjuncture in the global
find more resources at oneclass.com
find more resources at oneclass.com
Document Summary
Marks, the origins of the modern world, ch. 1700 - 1890 the span over which dramatic changes occur. By 1900, india accounted for barely 2 percent of world manufacturing output and china at about 7 percent. Conversely, europe alone claimed 60% and the u. s. This is in stark contrast to the eighteenth century where china, india and europe were broadly comparable in terms of economic development and various other factors like life expectancies and a standard of living. Where india and china accounted for half of the wealth of the world in the 18th century, by the 19th century they had become among the least industrialized and the poorest. From 1750, to 1850, china and india became relatively poorer with growing populations and less wealth being created, particularly in comparison with the. Moreover, neither china or india was industrializing resulting in cities that could not accommodate larger populations and thus an intensifying rural poverty.
