BIOL 4376 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Streptococcus Pyogenes, Rheumatic Fever, Scarlet Fever

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lilacbat185

21 Jun 2020

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Most virulent factors so it makes it human prime. Straptokinase plasminogen complex which filters out active plasmin that degrades to fibrin . Infections factors are just fyi) skin infection: key point: non-prulent infection: rheumatic fever :- most serious sequel (post) of qas. Damage heart muscle & values associated wf pharyngeal infections. fever, arthritis, malaise & inflammation of all parts of heart. 1 gram the - in chains or pairs la 4 strepto kinase: streptokinase & plasminogen kes it human primary pathogen. because they divide in one plain cause disease regardless most virulent factors. Infections caused by gas: - due to microflora. He said other factors are sus lo cellulitis: skin infection: red, hot, bumpy skin . 3 iep pathogens. Grove a necrotizing fascitis type of cellulitis streptococcus pyogenes -> ( group a) (3 pharnygitis : upper respiratory: beffy tonsils. 2 cellulitis 1 post streptococcus infections: classification of streptococci. Streptococcal pharyngitis: - very contagious infection 10.

Related Questions

16. All of the following are true about ear infections EXCEPT:

Middle ear infections (otitis media) often produce a puslike exudate (referred to as otitis media with effusion) due to infection by genera of Streptococcus, Haemophilus, or various species of anaerobes.

External auditory canal (otitis externa) infections are typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

After successful treatment of middle ear infections with antibiotics, sometimes tubes are inserted to prevent fluid accumulation, repeated infections, and hearing loss.

Pseudomonad infections are common in swimmers because these organisms are able to produce a soluble greenish-blue pigment.

Repeated ear infections in children often decrease markedly because as the child ages and the Eustachian tube changes shape and develops an angle that prevents most organisms from reaching the middle ear.

17. Why are colds difficult to treat and prevent?

Different cold viruses predominate during different seasons.

Because there are so many different types of rhino- and coronaviruses, each with different antigens, development and administration of vaccines are currently prohibitive.

Although some human interferons have been shown to block or limit rhinovirus infections, delivery to infection sites is difficult, and unwanted side effects can occur.

All of the above.

Both a and c.

18. Which of the following is NOT true about parainfluenza viruses?

Most infants by the age of 6 months have been exposed to and develop antibodies against all 4 parainfluenza viruses.

They cause rhinitis characterized by nasal, pharyngeal, and bronchial inflammation, primarily in children.

Parainfluenza virus infection can be prevented by vaccination.

They can cause noisy respiration (stridor) and acute obstruction of the larynx called croup.

The viruses are spread by direct contact or by large droplets.

19. In whooping cough, patients experience violent coughing episodes during the _________ stage and can have bluing of the skin or _________ due to lack of oxygen from massive mucus and bacterial airway blockage.

Paroxysmal; cyanosis

Catarrhal; pigmentation

Convalescent; osmosis

Pneumotic; hydrolysis

Primary; emesis

20. Penicillins have no effect on Mycoplasma pneumoniae because:

Mycoplasmas are viruses

Mycoplasmas possess beta lactamases

Mycoplasmas are too small

Mycoplasmas are eukaryotes

Mycoplasmas lack cell walls

21. How many cases of tuberculosis are reported globally each year?

10,000

100,000

3 million

10 million

22. Mycobacteria are difficult to Gram stain, and are termed âacid-fastâ due to their:

Ability to survive in acidic conditions

Resistance to drying

Thick, waxy cell walls

Resistance to sunlight

Lack of a peptidoglycan layer

23. Which of the following is true about pathogenic mycobacteria?

They have a long generation time of 12 to 18 hours.

They are obligate anaerobes sensitive to small amounts of oxygen.

They are highly resistant to drying and can remain viable in dried sputum 6 to 8 months later.

Both a and b.

Both a and c.

24. Clinical symptoms of tuberculosis are primarily due to:

Host inflammatory response

Mycotoxins

Endotoxin

Mucus production

Exotoxin

25. What characteristic of Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, allows it to survive for up to 2 years?

Metachromatic granule

Exotoxin

Endospore

Hemagglutinin

Cilia

26. The normal microflora of the heart includes species of:

Gram-positive bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria

Fungi

Viruses

None of these

27. Which of the following is commonly directly responsible for causing septic shock today?

Bacterial hemagglutinins

Bacterial endotoxins

Bacterial exotoxins

Fungal aflatoxins

Bacterial neurotoxins

28. All of the following are symptoms of septic shock EXCEPT

Shock

Lymphangitis

Chills

Fever

Collapsed blood vessels

29. What is the most likely explanation of how Streptococcus pyogenes causes rheumatic fever?

Strep throat infections migrate down to the heart.

Endotoxin production causes septicemia.

Vegetation followed by fibrin deposition.

Cross-reactivity of an antibody for a Streptococcus pyogenes antigen to a heart cell antigen.

It is an opportunistic infection triggered by coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis.

30. Bacterial endocarditis is an infection and inflammation of the lining and valves of the heart and occurs as a result of transient bacteria attaching to fibrin from exposed collagen fibers of damaged valvular surfaces. True or false?

copperwhale493

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

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BIOL 4376 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Streptococcus Pyogenes, Rheumatic Fever, Scarlet Fever

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