ECON 1000 Midterm: ECON 1000 Kennesaw State ECON1000 Summer2017 Exam2A

Considering the demand side of a market for a good, it is reasonable to expect that:
i. demand curves for a given good are identical between consumers
ii. demand curves for a given good differ between consumers
iii. an individual has identical demand curves for different goods
iv. an individual has different demand curves for different goods

Suppose the market demand curve for a good is represented by the linear equation Q = 60 - 0.75P. If the market price were to increase from P = $20 to P = $40, then holding all other factors constant:

A perfectly competitive firms supply curve for a good identifies the:
i. minimum quantity supplied at each price, holding all other factors constant
ii. firms minimum willingness to accept for each incremental unit of the good (e.g., the first unit, second unit, etc.), holding all other factors constant
iii. maximum quantity supplied at each price, holding all other factors constant
iv. firms maximum willingness to accept for each incremental unit of the good (e.g., the first unit, second unit, etc.), holding all other factors constant

Considering the supply side of a market for a good, if a firms supply curve were vertical, then:

The determinants of supply are:
i. factors other than price that will affect the quantity of a good or service a firm is willing and able to purchase
ii. factors that affect a producers maximum willingness-to-accept to produce various quantities of a good
iii. factors that affect a producers minimum willingness-to-accept to produce various quantities of a good

The market supply curve for a good is derived by:
i. horizontally summing the supply curves of the individual firms in the market
ii. vertically summing the supply curves of the individual firms in the market
iii. summing the quantity supplied by each firm at a given price and then repeating this over the range of prices

If the level of technology used in the production of a good improves, and assuming the quality of the good does not change, then:
i. more output may be obtained with a given amount of inputs compared to before the technological improvement
ii. a given amount of output may be obtained with fewer inputs compared to before the technological improvement
iii. the firm will increase its use of other inputs, such as the number of workers it employs
iv. market demand for the good will increase

Considering the market for gasoline, which of the following would result in an increase in market supply?
i. a decrease in the price of gasoline
ii. an improvement in oil extraction and refining technologies
iii. an increase in the wage rates paid to gasoline refinery workers
iv. a decrease in the price of crude oil, a key input used to produce gasoline
v. the imposition of a federal gasoline tax aimed a decreasing the emission of greenhouse gases

Suppose a market has two identical sellers. If each sellers supply function is given by P = 20 + Q, then the market supply function is:

From the market framework discussed in class and the readings, it may be concluded that in order for a good to be exchanged between a seller and a buyer, it must be that:

If the market demand function is given by P = 80 - 0.3Q and the market supply is given by P = 20 + 0.1Q, then the equilibrium price and quantity are:

Of concern are the affects of sustained summer droughts on the domestic supply of wheat. Noting that wheat is a primary ingredient in the production of bread and that potatoes are a substitute for bread, if the supply of wheat declines then it is reasonable to expect:

Suppose a perfectly competitive market is initially in equilibrium. If market demand and supply decrease simultaneously, then equilibrium:

Considering the demand side of a market for a good, the consumer surplus derived by an individual:
i. is the difference between the maximum amount the consumer is willing to pay on each unit and the minimum prices that producers are willing to accept
ii. is the difference between the minimum amount the consumer is willing to pay on each unit and the price he/she
actually pays
iii. is the difference between the maximum amount the consumer is willing to pay on each unit and the price he/she actually pays
iv. will decrease if price increases

Suppose the market demand for a good is described by the equation P = 120 - 2Q. If a change in market supply results in price decreasing from P0 = $80 to P1 = $70, then the resulting change in consumer surplus is:

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

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_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

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17. Which of the following is a determinant of supply?

A. Tastes and preferences

B. Price of a complementary good

C. Consumer income

D. Technology

18. A market is in equilibrium:

A. provided there is no surplus of the product

B. at all prices above that shown by the intersection of the supply and demand curves

C. if the amount producers want to sell is equal to the amount consumers want to buy

D. whenever the demand curve is downsloping and the supply curve is upsloping.

19. If the market price is above the equilibrium price:

A. A shortage will occur and producers will produce more and lower prices

B. A surplus will occur and producers will produce less and lower prices

C. A surplus will result and consumers will bid prices up

D. Producers will make extremely high profits

20. The market system automatically corrects a surplus condition in a competitive market by:

A. Raising the price of the commodity in question while increasing the quantity demanded

B. Raising the price of the commodity in question while decreasing the quantity demanded

C. Reducing the price of the commodity in question while increasing the quantity demanded

D. Reducing the price of the commodity in question while decreasing the quantity demanded

21. The price elasticity of demand measures:

A. buyer responsiveness to price changes.

B. the extent to which demand curve shifts as incomes change.

C. the slope of the demand curve.

D. how far business executives can stretch their fixed costs

22. The elasticity of demand for a product is likely to be greater:

A. if the product is a necessity, rather than a luxury good.

B. the greater the amount of time over which buyers adjust to a price change

C. the smaller the proportion of one's income spent on the product.

D. the smaller the number of substitute products available.

23. Market failure is said to occur whenever:

A. private markets do not allocate resources in the most economically desirable way

B. prices rise

C. some consumers who want a good do not obtain it because the price is higher than they are willing to pay

D. government intervenes in the functioning of private markets.

24. A negative externality or spillover cost occurs when:

A. firms fail to achieve allocative efficiency.

B. firms fail to achieve productive efficiency.

C. the price of the good exceeds the marginal cost of producing it.

D. the total cost of producing a good exceeds the costs borne by the producer