ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2010 Exam1A Key

13 views3 pages

turquoisegnu128

31 Jan 2019

School

Department

Course

Professor

For unlimited access to Study Guides, a Grade+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

Econ 2100 (summer 2010 sections 05 and 06) _______________ is the branch of economics which studies the behavior of a society"s economy as a whole (focusing on levels of and changes in things such as unemployment rates, inflation rates, and gdp growth rates). Since the end of april, there has been an increase in both the price and quantity traded of #2. The law of supply states that all other factors fixed, the quantity supplied of a good will be greater when its price is higher. How can we guarantee that all individuals in society have relatively equal levels of income and consumption? . Recall that the market equilibrium in the model of supply and demand is a self enforcing equilibrium. Voluntary trade generally makes both parties to the trade better off. A rational decision maker should take an action if and only if the marginal benefit of the action is at least as great as the.

Related Questions

When demand for a good is very elastic, revenue ________ when the price falls.

(2)

An elasticity measure less than one means that demand is __________.

(3)

An elasticity measure greater than one means that demand is __________.

(4)

The Latin expression ceteris paribus means

	having made all other necessary changes.
	holding constant all other variables.
	assuming all households have similar incomes.
	given the level of income in the economy.

(5)

A variable measured in terms of money is called a ____________________.

	real variable
	nominal variable
	macroeconomic variable
	microeconomic variable

(6)

Which of the following is true about the importance of money in economics?

	Money is important in both macroeconomics and microeconomics.
	Money is important in macroeconomics but not microeconomics.
	Money is important in microeconomics but not macroeconomics.
	Money is not important in either microeconomics or macroeconomics.

(7)

What is the difference between normative and positive economics?

	Positive economics is descriptive and predictive; normative economics is prescriptive.
	Positive economics highlights the positive aspects of the economy; normative economics highlights the average features.
	Positive economics studies the actions of individuals; normative economics studies the actions of households.
	Positive economics is an applied social science; normative economics is a theoretical social science.

(8)

The slope of the demand curve is negative because

	the quantity of a good demanded decreases as income declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded increases as income declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded increases as the price declines.
	the quantity of a good demanded decreases as the price declines.

(9)

What is the result of an increase in the price of bread, a normal good?

	The demand curve shifts to the right.
	The demand curve shifts to the left.
	The quantity demanded increases.
	The quantity demanded decreases.

(10)

What is the effect on demand for bread when the price of bagels, a substitute for bread, rises?

	The demand curve for bread shifts to the right.
	The demand curve for bread shifts to the left.
	The quantity of bread demanded increases.
	The quantity of bread demanded decreases.

(11)

Which of the following would cause the supply curve for bread to shift inward?

	An increase in the price of bread
	An increase in the price of bagels
	A decrease in the price of bread
	An increase in the price of flour

(12)

An improvement in technology shifts the supply curve outward because

	at every price, firms find producing the good to be more profitable.
	the price of the good increases.
	at every price, firms find producing the good to be less profitable.
	the price of the good decreases.

(13)

Which of the following factors does not affect how much bread a baker is willing to produce?

	The price of bread
	The demand for bread
	The cost of inputs
	Technology

(14)

How do expectations of prices affect how much of a good producers are willing to sell?

	Expectations of prices affect only demand, not supply.
	Actual prices, not expectations of prices, affect supply.
	If producers expect prices to fall in the future, they supply less at every price.
	If producers expect prices to rise in the future, they supply less at every price.

(15)

When the price of a good is above equilibrium level,

	the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
	the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.
	the supply curve shifts to the left.
	the supply curve shifts to the right.

(16)

At a price of P₀ in the diagram below, which of the following statements is true?

	Supply equals demand.
	There is excess demand.
	There is excess supply.
	There is scarcity.

(17)

If demand for bread increases at every price, the equilibrium price of bread will

	fall.
	rise.
	remain unchanged.
	depend on income.

(18)

If the demand for bread declines, then

	at the original equilibrium price, there is excess demand.
	at the original equilibrium price, there is excess supply.
	the supply curve shifts to the right.
	the supply curve shifts to the left.

(19)

Peanut butter and jelly are complementary goods. When the price of peanut butter rises, the demand for jelly ________ and the price of jelly ________.

	rises; falls
	rises; rises
	falls; rises
	falls; falls

(20)

The measure of elasticity that economists use is

	always a positive number.
	always a negative number.
	positive when demand is elastic and negative when demand is inelastic.
	negative when demand is elastic and positive when demand is inelastic.

(21)

Which of the following formulas is the correct expression for the slope of a line?

(22)

Graphically how would an increase in income affect the demand for hamburgers?

	The slope of the demand curve would increase.
	The slope of the demand curve would decrease.
	The demand curve would shift outward, parallel to the original demand curve.
	The demand curve would shift inward, parallel to the original demand curve.

(23)

Given the equation P = $6.00 ? $.40Q, where P is the price of the good and Q is the quantity of the good demanded, how many units will this consumer demand if the price is $3.60?

	1.44 units
	3 units
	3.6 units
	6 units

(24)

Which of the following is true about unit elasticity?

	Revenues remain unchanged when the price changes.
	Elasticity of demand increases as one moves down the demand curve.
	Elasticity of demand decreases as one moves down the demand curve.
	The elasticity of demand is greater than one at every point along the demand curve.

(25)

Which of the following could be a determinant of the quantity demanded of a good?

	The price of the good
	The price of related goods
	Income
	Expectations about the future price of the product
	All of the above

violethare488

Q1. If the price of a complement increases, all else equal, ----------------------------

Q2. Which of the following would lead to an INCREASE in the demand for golf balls?

A) An decrease in the price of golf balls.

B) An increase in the price of golf clubs.

C) A decrease in the cost of producing golf balls.

D) An increase in average household income when golf balls are a normal good.

E) none of the above

Q3. If input prices increase, all else equal, --------------------------------

Q4. Which of the following would decrease the supply of wheat?

A) A decrease in the price of pesticides. B) An increase in the demand for wheat. C) A rise in the price of wheat. D) An increase in the price of corn. E) none of the above

Q5. When Sonoma Vineyards increases the price of its Chardonnay from $15 per bottle to $20 per bottle, the result is a decrease inâ¦

A) the quantity of this wine demanded B) the quantity of this wine supplied.

C) the demand for this wine. D) the supply of this wine.

Q6. Which of the following will cause a change in quantity supplied?

A) Technological change. B) A change in input prices. C) A change in the market price of the good.

D) A change in the number of firms in the market. E) all of the above.

Q7. In which of the following cases will the effect on equilibrium output be indeterminate (i.e., depend on the magnitudes of the shifts in supply and demand)?

A) Demand decreases and supply decreases. B) Demand remains constant and supply increases.

C) Demand decreases and supply increases. D) Demand increases and supply increases. E) none of the above.

Use the following demand and supply functions to answer the next three questions.

Demand: QD= 600 - 30P Supply: QS = -300 + 120P

Q8. Equilibrium price and output are

A) P = $2 and Q = 540. B) P = $10 and Q = 300. C) P = $6 and Q = 420.

D) P = $3.33 and Q = 500. E) none of the above

Q9. If the price is currently $8, there is a --------------------------

A) surplus of 360 units. B) shortage of 360 units. C) surplus of 300 units.

D) shortage of 660 units. E) none of the above

Q10. If the price is currently $4, there is a

A) shortage of 300 units. B) shortage of 480 units. C) surplus of 180 units.

D) shortage of 180 units. E) none of the above

Q.11 The Free Indeed Company manufactures ladiesâ shoes that are sold through discount houses. The shoes are sold for $20 each pair; the fixed costs are $110,000 for up to 30,000 pairs of shoes; variable costs are $13 per pair of shoes. What is the firmâs breakeven point in units sold?

a) 30,000 pairs of shoes b) 15,714 pairs of shoes c) 8,462 pairs of shoes d) 5,500 pairs of shoes

Q12. If the demand curve for British pounds shifts to the right, ---------------

a) the dollar price of British pounds will increase

b) the dollar price of British pounds will decrease

c) the exchange rate between dollars and pounds will be out of equilibrium

d) the pound will fall in value against the dollar

Q13. Judgments about "what ought to be" in economic matters. Can't be proven false, based on judgments

a. Macroeconomics b. Positive economics c. Normative economics d. Microeconomics

Q14. Which of the following statements is normative in nature?

A) That economics mid-term was tough!

B) Professor of economics put too many multiple-choice questions.

C) Neither of these statements is normative in nature

D) Both A & B of these statements are normative in nature

1) Which of the following transactions would be included in GDP?

a) The purchase of a Monet painting.

b) The purchase of paper clips.

c) The purchase of Telstra shares.

d) The purchase of a used car.

2) Economics is the study of

a) the choices everybody makes to attain their goals, given their scarce resources.

b) supply and demand.

c) how to make money in a market economy.

d) how to make money in the stock market.

3) The economy is considered to be at full employment when

a) all unemployment is voluntary.

b) all unemployment is frictional or structural.

c) there are no unemployed workers.

d) there are more unemployed workers than job vacancies

4) An example of an intermediate good would be

a) a can of cool drink sold by a super‐market.

b) a microwave used at home.

c) the bread that goes into a sandwich sold by a lunch bar.

d) the petrol purchased by consumers for their cars

5) From 2004 to 2005, the CPI for medical care increased from 260.8 to 272.8. What was the inflation rate for medical care?

a) 12 percent

b) 11.1 percent

c) 4.9 percent

d) 4.6 percent

6) A shift outwards of the nation's production possibility frontier can occur from

a) a reduction in unemployment.

b) an increase in the size of the labour force.

c) a change in the amounts of one good desired.

d) a natural disaster like a hurricane or severe earthquake

7) What assumptions about humans do economists make?

a) People are greedy and selfish.

b) None, because economics takes humans as given.

c) People are rational and respond to incentives.

d) Humans prefer to live in a society that values fairness above all else.

8) The labour force is the

a) a number of people employed minus the number of people unemployed.

b) ratio of the number of people employed by the number of people unemployed.

c) ratio of the number of people employed to the working-age population.

d) the number of people employed plus the number of people unemployed.

9) The production possibility frontier shows

a) attainable combinations of two products that may be produced with available resources.

b) the various products that can be produced now and in the future.

c) what an equitable distribution of products among citizens would be.

d) the rate of substitution between capital and labour.

10) Which of the following transactions would be included in the official calculation of GDP?

a) Bridgestone sells $2 million worth of tyres to General Motors Holden

b) You illegally download music off the Internet to put on your new iPod.

c) A new iPod.

d) A student buys a used textbook at the bookstore.

11) What are the three fundamental questions that any economy must answer?

a) What will be the prices of goods, how will these goods be produced, and who gets them?

b) What will be the prices of goods, what will be produced, and who gets them?

c) What will be produced, how will these goods be produced, and who gets them?

d) How much will be saved, what will be produced, and how can these goods be fairly distributed?

12) If the nominal interest rate is 6% and the inflation rate is 2%, then the real interest rate is

a) 3%.

b) 2%.

c) 4%.

d) 8%.

14) Suppose that a very simple economy produces three goods: movies, burgers, and bikes. Suppose the quantities produced and their corresponding prices for 2004 and 2009 are shown in the following table:

	2004		2009
	Quantity	Price	Quantity	Price
Movies	20	$6	30	$7
Burgers	100	$2	90	$2.5
Bikes	3	$1000	6	$1100

What is real GDP in 2009, using 2004 as the base year?

a) $3690

b) $7035

c) $6360

d) $3320

15) If the production possibility frontier is graphed as a straight line, what does this mean?

a) Opportunity costs are constant as production shifts from one product to the other.

b) It is easy to efficiently produce output.

c) Nothing, there is no significance of a straight line production possibility frontier.

d) Opportunity costs are increasing as production shifts from one product to the other.

16) If you have both an economics exam and a management exam tomorrow, but find that you have time to fully study for only one of them, what are you facing?

a) A failing grade in both exams

b) A zero opportunity cost

c) A trade‐off

d) An impossible situation

17) Which of the following is a problem inherent in centrally planned economies?

a) Production managers do not satisfy consumer wants but the government's orders.

b) Too much production of low‐cost, high‐quality goods and services.

c) There are no problems, everyone, including consumers are satisfied.

d) None of these describe the problem inherent in a centrally planned economy.

18) Inflation is an increase in the

a) average hourly wage rate.

b) general price level in the economy.

c) the overall level of economic activity.

d) rate of growth of GDP.

19) Total production in the economy is measured as the

a) dollar value of all final goods and services produced in the economy.

b) the total number of services produced in the economy.

c) the total number of goods produced in the economy.

d) the total number of goods and services produced in the economy.

20) An increase in the price of dairy products produced domestically will be reflected in

a) Both the GDP deflator and the consumer price index.

b) Neither the GDP deflator nor the consumer price index.

c) The GDP deflator but not in the consumer price index.

d) The consumer price index but not in the GDP deflator.

21) The reason that opportunity cost arises is that

a) money has proven to be an inefficient means of facilitating exchange in a market.

b) sometimes there are no alternative decisions that can be made.

c) resources are limited at any point in time. d) people have unlimited wants.

21) You have an absolute advantage whenever you

a) are better educated than someone else.

b) can produce something at a lower opportunity cost than others.

c) can produce more of something than others with the same resources.

d) prefer to do one particular activity.

22) Which of the following is an example of a worker experiencing cyclical unemployment?

a) A Freightliner employee who was sacked because of a recession.

b) A worker who quits his job because he does not get along with his boss

c) A worker that changes jobs to move closer to her family.

d) An assembly line worker who loses his job because of automation.

23) A company named Home Depot sells new and used doors to contractors who build new homes. Home Depot also sells new and used doors to home‐owners. Which of the following would be counted in GDP?

a) The sale of a used door to a home‐owner

b) The sale of a used door to for construction for installation into a new home.

c) The sale of a new door to for construction for installation into a new home.

d) The sale of a new door to home‐owner.

24) If you buy shares, the dollar value is

a) not included in GDP.

b) included in GDP under consumer expenditure.

c) included in GDP as a business expense.

d) included in GDP under-investment.

25) During the 1930s, Australia and other industrialised countries experienced the Great Depression with a large number of workers and factories unemployed.Which of the following points on a production possibility frontier model would represent this experience?

a) A point on the frontier

b) A point inside the frontier

c) An increase in the opportunity cost of the substitution between capital and labour

d) A point outside the frontier

26) How is the decision about what goods and services will be produced made in a market economy?

a) The government decides on what will be produced.

b) Producing firms decide to produce only what the firms' owners say must be produced.

c) By consumers, firms, and government choosing which goods and services to buy.

d) What will be produced is determined by what society needs the most.

27) In the country of Shem, the CPI is calculated using a market basket consisting of 5 apples, 4 loaves of bread, 3 robes and 2 gallons of gasoline. The per‐unit prices of these goods have been as follows: Using 2002 as the base year, what was the inflation rate between 2003 and 2004?

a) 28.5 percent

b) 34.2 percent

c) 47 percent

d) It is impossible to determine without knowing the base year.

28) Given the following information, calculate the unemployment rate: Full‐time employed = 80 Part‐time employed = 25 Unemployed = 15 Discouraged workers = 5 Members of underground economy = 6 Consumer Price Index = 110

a) 18.8 per cent.

b) 12.5 per cent.

c) 16.7 per cent.

d) 25 per cent.

29) If the quantity of resources available is fixed, as more of a good is produced, the opportunity cost of producing it increases. The most probable reason for this is that

a) as more of a good is produced, the quality of technology available to produce additional units declines.

b) the price of the inputs used to produce the good will rise.

c) consumers are unwilling to pay higher prices to cover the increases in production costs.

d) resources are not equally well‐suited to producing all goods.

30) Which of the following is a normative statement?

a) The current high price of petrol is the result of strong worldwide demand.

b) The price of petrol is too high.

c) Larger vehicles always use more fuel per kilometre than smaller vehicles

d) The supply of petrol has not been able to meet the demand for petrol.

31) Transfer payments are not included in GDP because

a) they do not generate income.

b) their market value is difficult to measure.

c) they are not purchases of goods or services.

d) their value is included in government expenditure.

32) The opportunity cost of going to your economics class

a) depends on the cost of your transport getting to class.

b) is equal to the highest value of alternative use of the time.

c) is zero because there is no admission charged if you are enrolled in the class.

d) depends on the salary of the lecturer.

33) Establishing employment agencies that speeds up the process of matching unemployed workers with unfilled jobs are an attempt to lower

a) cyclical unemployment.

b) seasonal unemployment.

c) structural unemployment.

d) frictional unemployment.

34) Suppose that money GDP for 2009 was $15 000 billion and the price index was 150 and in 2010 money GDP was $17 050 billion with a price index of 155. What is the rate of economic growth?

a) 5%

b) 10%

c) 2%

d) 1%

35) An individual has a comparative advantage in activity whenever she

a) also has an absolute advantage in that activity.

b) can perform the activity at a lower opportunity cost than another person can.

c) can do everything better than everyone else can.

d) can do the activity in less time than anyone else.

36) GDP is not a perfect measure of wellbeing because

a) GDP is adjusted for increases in drug addiction.

b) GDP is not adjusted for the effects of pollution.

c) GDP is adjusted for changes in crime.

d) the value of leisure is included in GDP.

37) What does an entrepreneur do in a market economy?

a) Organise the factors of production in a working unit.

b) Stand to lose the personal funds provided.

c) Develop the vision for the firm and ensure funding for the firm.

d) An entrepreneur does all of these things.

38) An example of a transfer payment is

a) the purchase of a new government office block.

b) a teacher's pay is transferred electronically from the government to the teacher.

c) interest repayments on a loan.

d) an unemployment benefit.

39) Which of the following is a microeconomics question?

a) What will be the level of total production in the national economy?

b) How much income will be saved and how much will be spent on consumer goods?

c) What factors determine the price of computers in the market?

d) Why is the rate of unemployment rising?

40) The measure of production that values production using current prices is called

a) value-added GDP.

b) nominal GDP.

c) black economy GDP.

d) real GDP.

41) Which of the following causes the official measure of the unemployment rate to understate the true extent of joblessness?

a) People who collect unemployment benefits report themselves to be searching for a job.

b) Discouraged workers are counted as unemployed.

c) Discouraged workers are not counted as unemployed.

d) Many full-time workers really want to be part-time workers.

42) A production possibility frontier will shift inwards if

a) inefficiency in production processes arise.

b) there is an increase in the rate of unemployment.

c) productive resources are destroyed due to war.

d) all of these options are correct.

43) Structural unemployment would increase when

a) discouraged workers drop out of the workforce.

b) the economy enters a recession.

c) the number of individuals who quit their job to find another increase.

d) workers are replaced by machines and the workers do not have the skills to perform new jobs.

44) The 2005 CPI was 196 and the 1982 CPI was 96.5. If your parents put aside $1,000 for you in 1982, how much would you have needed in 2005 in order to buy what you could have bought with the $1,000 in 1982?

a) $1,834.20

b) $2,031.09

c) $2,308.89

d) None of the above is correct.

45) What is an economic model?

turquoisedeer68

ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2010 Exam1A Key

Document Summary

Get access

Related Documents

ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2010 Exam1B Key

ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2010 Exam1A

ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2010 Exam1B

Related Questions