ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2013 Exam3A

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31 Jan 2019

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At the most basic level, profit is defined as. ___________________ refers to a practice whereby a seller of a good separates consumers into different groups and then charges each different group of consumers a different constant per unit price for each unit of the good purchased. In a perfectly competitive market, there are significant barriers to entry which prevent new firms from entering the market. there are many sellers but relatively few buyers. all goods offered for sale are identical to each other. Consider a firm in a perfectly competitive market with: output price of . 85 per unit; Brooke produces shoes in a perfectly competitive market. During the month of may she: produced 800 shoes, sold each pair of shoes at a price of per pair, had fixed costs of ,600, and earned a total profit of ,400 (i. e. , negative ,400 ).

Related Questions

PLEASE ANSWER EACH QUESTION WITH A, B, C, and D. NOT ANSWERING ALL QUESTIONS OR INCORRECT ANSWERS WILL RESULT IN A THUMBS DOWN.

Question 1: Which of the following is not needed for price discrimination to be possible?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale and arbitrage.
		C. The firm must eventually learn about its customers' demands.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 2: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, first-degree price discrimination results in:

	A.	higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	B.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
	C.	lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and lower total surplus.
	D.	lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 3: Relative to perfect competition, first-degree price discrimination results in:

		A. higher consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and higher total surplus.
		B. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		C. lower consumer surplus, higher producer surplus, and equal total surplus.
		D. lower consumer surplus, lower producer surplus, and lower total surplus.

Question 4: If market demand is P = 100 - Q and the firm has a constant marginal cost of 20, then with first-degree price discrimination, the firm's producer surplus will be:

A.	$800.
B.	$1,600.
C.	$2,400.
D.	$3,200.

Question 5: For third-degree discrimination to be possible, which of the following features is not required?

		A. market power
		B. prevention of resale
		C. identification of each customer's demand before purchase
		D. customers with different demand curves

Question 6: A golf course has frequent players whose demand is Q_f = 260 - 0.4P and infrequent players whose demand is Q_i = 10 - 0.1P. The combined market demand is Q = 34 - 0.4P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a round of golf are $20. How much higher will the profit be if the golf course uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all golfers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$7.50
C.	$10
D.	$110

Question 7: An airline sells seats on its flights to business travelers whose demand is Q_B = 300 - P and vacation travelers whose demand is Q_V = 150 - 0.5P. The combined market demand is Q = 450 - 1.5P. The marginal cost and average total cost of providing a seat on a flight are $200. How much higher will profit be if the airline uses third-degree price discrimination instead of charging all travelers the same price?

A.	$0
B.	$250
C.	$400
D.	$1,000

Question 8: If a firm practices third-degree price discrimination, the price charged should be higher in the market where demand is:

	A.	Higher.
	B.	Lower.
	C.	More price elastic.
	D.	Less price is elastic.

Question 9: The key difference between markets where third-degree price discrimination is possible and markets where second-degree price discrimination is possible is whether:

		A. resale is possible.
		B. customers have the same demand curves.
		C. firms have market power.
		D. firms can identify customers' demand before the customers make a purchase.

Question 10: For price discrimination via a quantity discount to work:

		A. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively elastic demand.
		B. customers who purchase larger quantities must have relatively inelastic demand.
		C. customers who pay a relatively high price must have relatively elastic demand.
		D. customers who pay a relatively low price must have relatively inelastic demand.

Question 11: A firm wants to offer a quantity discount to price-discriminate between buyers who are relatively uninterested in the product and buyers who are obsessively interested in it. The uninterested customers have a demand of Q_U = 30 - 0.5P. The package offered to them contains 10 units of the good at a price of $40 each. Which of the following packages designed for obsessed customers is incentive compatible?

	A.	60 units at a price of $10 each
	B.	40 units at a price of $10 each
	C.	60 units at a price of $20 each
	D.	40 units at a price of $20 each

Question 12: Which of the following conditions do not have to be met in order for indirect price discrimination by versioning to work?

		A.The firm's customers must have different demand curves.
		B. The marginal costs of producing each version of the product must be the same.
		C. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		D. The firm must have market power.

	Willingness to pay (per month)
	Weight machines	Indoor pool
Abe	$60	$50
Betty	50	125
Chris	25	140

QUESTION 13
This table shows the willingness to pay off the only three potential customers of a firm that runs both a weight room and an indoor swimming pool. The weight room and pool each have a constant marginal cost of $20 per month. Which of the following pricing strategies yields the highest producer surplus?

		A. $60 for the weight room, $140 for the pool, or $175 for both
		B. $50 for the weight room, $125 for the pool, or $165 for both
		C. $25 for the weight room, $50 for the pool, or $70 for both
		D. $60 for the weight room, $130 for the pool, or $175 for both

Question 14: Which of the following features is needed to make bundling a possible price discrimination strategy but is not required for any other price discrimination strategies?

		A. Customers must have identical demand curves.
		B. The firm does not learn about customer demand until after purchase.
		C. Demand for two products must be negatively correlated.
		D. The firm must not have market power.

Question 15: Which of the following features is not needed for price discrimination using a two-part tariff to work?

		A. The firm must have market power.
		B. The firm must be able to prevent resale.
		C. The firm must learn about its customers' demands before purchases are made.
		D. The firm's customers must have different demand curves.

Question 16: A firm faces a market demand curve P = 50 - 5Q. It has a constant marginal cost of $10. Relative to standard monopoly pricing, how would a block pricing strategy where the first four units can be purchased for a price of $30 each, but two more units can be purchased for an additional $20 each change consumer surplus and producer surplus?

		A. Consumer surplus would decrease by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		B. Consumer surplus would increase by $10, and producer surplus would increase by $20.
		C. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $10.
		D. Consumer surplus would increase by $20, and producer surplus would increase by $20.

Question 17: Relative to standard monopoly pricing, block pricing:

		A. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		B. increases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and increases total surplus.
		C. decreases consumer surplus, increases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.
		D. decreases consumer surplus, decreases producer surplus, and decreases total surplus.

Question 18: Which of the following results in the highest amount of producer surplus?

	A.	bundling
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 19: Which of the following results in the highest amount of consumer surplus?

	A.	first-degree price discrimination
	B.	third-degree price discrimination
	C.	block pricing
	D.	two-part tariffs

Question 20: Which of the following results in the highest amount of total surplus?

	A.	third-degree price discrimination
	B.	block pricing
	C.	first-degree price discrimination
	D.	bundling

crimsonbadger400

1).

A consumer spends more time searching for a good when her reservation price is:

increased.

reduced.

fixed.

None of the statements is correct.

2).

In the game shown below, firms 1 and 2 must independently decide whether to charge high or low prices.

Which of the following are Nash equilibrium payoffs in the one-shot game?

(0, 0)

(5, -5)

(-5, 5)

(10, 10)

3).

A risk-neutral individual would:

prefer $5 with certainty to a risky prospect with the expected value of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with an expected value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

be indifferent between a risky prospect with an expect value of $5 to a certain amount of $5.

prefer a risky prospect with the expected value of $0.50 to $5 with certainty.

4).

Snowpeak Ski Resort offers a price for a lift ticket that is barely over its marginal cost, but the high equipment rental fee keeps generating big profits. Which pricing strategy is the management using?

Price discrimination

Two-part pricing

Commodity bundling

Cross-subsidization

5).

The short run is defined as the time frame:

in which there are no fixed factors of production.

in which there are fixed factors of production.

less than one year.

less than three years.

6).

Fixed costs exist only in:

the long run.

capital-intensive markets.

the short run.

labor-intensive markets.

7).

Top of Form

Non-fed ground beef is an inferior good. In economic booms, grocery managers should:

increase their orders of non-fed ground beef.

reduce their orders of non-fed ground beef.

not change their orders of non-fed ground beef.

neither increase, reduce, nor maintain their current orders for non-fed ground beef.

Bottom of Form

8).

Which of the following pricing strategies is NOT used in markets with special cost and demand structures?

Peak-load pricing

Cross-subsidization

Transfer pricing

Low-price guarantees

9).

A perfectly competitive firm faces a:

perfectly elastic demand function.

perfectly inelastic demand function.

demand function with unitary elasticity.

None of the answers is correct.

10).

The special demand structure that induces a firm to use a cross-subsidization strategy is:

perfect substitution among products.

imperfect substitution among products.

independent demand for products.

interdependent demand for products.

11).

Which of the following factors reduces the need for government involvement in the marketplace?

The presence of externalities

The incentive to rent-seek

The need for public goods

Incomplete information

12).

Which of the following statements is true?

A mineral rights auction is not the same as a common-value auction.

An auctioneer is always indifferent between different kinds of auctions.

The Dutch and first-price, sealed-bid auctions are strategically equivalent.

An English auction always yields lower expected revenues than a second-price, sealed-bid auction.

13).

Which of the following is true concerning negative externalities?

Firms tend to produce more than the efficient level of output.

Society gains because firms do not pay the external costs of production.

Perfect competition is better than monopoly from the viewpoint of society even in the presence of negative externalities.

With negative externalities, a monopoly will always produce an output level less than is socially efficient.

14).

Which of the following is true under monopoly?

P > ATC

P > MC

P = MR

P = ATC

15).

Differentiated goods are NOT a feature of a:

perfectly competitive market.

monopolistically competitive market.

monopolistic market.

perfectly competitive market and monopolistic market.

16).

Producer surplus is measured as the area

below the demand curve and above the market price.

above the demand curve and below the market price.

above the supply curve and below the market price.

below the supply curve and above the market price.

17).

Jaynet spends $25,000 per year on painting supplies and storage space. She recently received two job offers from a famous marketing firm â one offer was for $105,000 per year, and the other was for $85,000. However, she turned both jobs down to continue a painting career. If Jaynet sells 30 paintings per year at a price of $9,000 each:

a. What are her accounting profits?

$

b. What are her economic profits?

$

18).

You are the manager of a monopoly that sells a product to two groups of consumers in different parts of the country. Group 1âs elasticity of demand is -2, while group 2âs is -4. Your marginal cost of producing the product is $40.

a. Determine your optimal markups and prices under third-degree price discrimination.

Instruction: Round your answers to two decimal places.

Markup for group 1:
Price for group 1: $

Markup for group 2:
Price for group 2: $

b. Which of the following are necessary conditions for third-degree price discrimination to enhance profits.

Instructions: You may select more than one answer. Click the box with a check mark for the correct answers and click twice to empty the box for the wrong answers. You must click to select or deselect each option in order to receive full credit.

	At least one group has elasticity of demand less than one in absolute value.
	There are two different groups with different (and identifiable) elasticities of demand.
	We are able to prevent resale between the groups.
	At least one group has elasticity of demand greater than 1 in absolute value.

19).

You are the manager of a firm that receives revenues of $60,000 per year from product X and $80,000 per year from product Y. The own price elasticity of demand for product X is -1.5, and the cross-price elasticity of demand between productY and X is -1.4.

How much will your firm's total revenues (revenues from both products) change if you increase the price of good X by 2 percent?

Instructions: Round your answer to the nearest dollar. Include a minus (-) sign if applicable.

$

redtiger788

A consultant has advised Consolidated Fish, Inc., a perfectly competitive firm, that it should cut back its production in order to increase its profits. We can conclude from this that

CF's total costs must be greater than its total revenues.

CF's marginal cost must be greater than the price of its product.

CF's costs are increasing at a rate less than its revenues.

fixed costs are not being covered and CF should shut down.

If marginal cost is equal to marginal revenue

the firm should hold output constant.

the firm should expand output.

there is no way to determine if the firm should expand output, contract output, or hold output constant.

the firm should contract output.

Which statement is true?

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average variable cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average total cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the break-even point.

As output expands beyond the break-even point, the vertical distance between the AVC and ATC will

remain constant.

get smaller.

get larger.

Total revenue divided by output equals

average variable cost.

marginal cost.

price.

average total cost.

A monopoly firm selling mustache wax to vain men in a small town is currently maximizing profits by charging a price of $5. It follows that the marginal cost of mustache wax

is equal to $5.

is greater than $5.

is less than $5.

None of these choices are true.

A firm can sell 14 units at $18, but to sell 15 units, the firm must cut the price to $17. The marginal revenue derived from selling the 15th unit is

-$18

$17

If total revenue is increasing as output is rising, then

marginal revenue must be greater than zero.

marginal revenue must be less than zero.

marginal revenue must be equal to zero.

price must be increasing.

Firms that had virtual monopolies, that is control over at least 80 percent of industry production, because of control over an essential resource include all of the following except

the DeBeers Diamond Company.

the Standard Oil Company.

the Ford Motor Company.

the International Nickel Company.

10.

Which statement is true?

None of these statements are true.

Most natural monopolies are government regulated or government owned.

All monopolies are bad.

All monopolies are good.

11.

Which is the most accurate statement?

There are virtually no oligopolies in the U.S.

The most important aspect of oligopoly is product differentiation.

There are a whole range of oligopolistic models, from a cartel to cutthroat competition.

An oligopolistic industry cannot have more than five firms

12.

Oligopolists have more control over prices than monopolistic competitors because

their prices are always set by the government.

since an oligopolist is the only competitor in the market, setting prices is no problem.

they can legally collude whereas monopolistic competitors may not.

with fewer competitors, they are able to monitor and determine their own prices much easier.

13.

The definition of monopolistic competition differs from that of perfect competition

in neither the number of firms nor the type of product.

in both the number of firms and the type of product.

with respect to the type of product.

with respect to the number of firms in the industry.

14.

The typical monopolistic competitor

may compete on the basis of physical differences, convenience, service, and ambience.

always competes on the basis of producing a product that is physically different from those of its competitors.

never uses price discrimination.

is a large firm.

15.

Which statement is true?

The monopolistic competitor may make a profit in the long run.

The monopolistic competitor has a perfectly elastic demand curve.

None of these statements are true.

The monopolistic competitor operates at the minimum point of her ATC curve.

16.

Which statement is true about the monopolistic competitor in the long run?

It will be breaking even.

It will be making a profit.

It may be making a profit or taking a loss.

It will be taking a loss.

17.

Which statement is true?

Most monopolistic competitors are large firms.

Monopolistic competitors produce goods or services for which there are no close substitutes.

None of these statements are true.

Monopolistic competitors usually operate at the minimum point of their average total cost curves.

18.

Which statement is false?

As the price of a good rises the consumer surplus decreases.

A person would maximize her total utility when she had no consumer surplus.

We will consume a service when its marginal utility is equal to its price.

A product's utility to a buyer is measured by how much the buyer is willing to pay for it.

ECON 2100 Midterm: ECON 2100 Kennesaw State ECON2100 Summer2013 Exam3A

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