Log in
HomeStudy Guides420,000US230,000

ECON 101 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Bird Feeder, Proportional Tax, Demand Curve

124 views10 pages
turquoisegnu128
1 Oct 2018
School
U of M
Department
Economics
Course
ECON 101
Professor
All

For unlimited access to Study Guides, a Grade+ subscription is required.

sangriahare462 and 5 others unlocked
ECON 101 Full Course Notes
30
ECON 101 Full Course Notes
Verified Note
30 documents

Document Summary

Unless a question explicitly says otherwise, assume that all demand curves slope downward and all supply curves slope upward. True/false: an increase in consumer demand for a good will cause an outward shift in the ppf, true, false, suppose the government establishes a tax of 10% on all consumption goods. ,000 per year and spends all his income on consumption goods. Kate earns ,000 per year and spends 50% of her income on consumption goods. He can make a bird feeder in 1 hour. Initially, the firm is hiring 8 units of labor and 8 units of capital each hour and is producing 60 units of output each hour. The firm then decides to cut all of its inputs in half. When they do so, they end up producing 40 units of output per hour. Over this range of output, the firm is experiencing economies of scale: true, false.

Get access

Grade+
$40 USD/m
Billed monthly
Grade+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
10 Verified Answers

Related Documents

ECON 101
Final Exam
Study Guide
ECON 101 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Bird Feeder, Proportional Tax, Demand Curve
turquoisegnu128
ECON 101
Final Exam
Study Guide
ECON 101 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Average Variable Cost, Economic Surplus, Marginal Cost
turquoisegnu128
ECON 101
Final Exam
Study Guide
ECON 101 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Deadweight Loss, Marginal Revenue, Economic Surplus
turquoisegnu128

Related Questions

31. A country's tax system influences the attractiveness of investing in that country and affects the relative level of profitability for an MNC.

a. True

b. False

32. Points inside a production possibilities frontier represent

a. unattainable production combinations

b. efficiency

c. situations where supply exceeds demand

d. unemployment of resources

33. Firms in a high-wage nation like the U.S. can compete effectively with imports from low-wage nations if

a. the U.S. reduces tariffs on imports

b. low-wage nations impose tariffs on U.S. made goods

c. labor productivity is higher in the low-wage nation

d. labor productivity is higher in the U.S.

34. Assume that production in the United States is valued at $100,000. National income is therefore $100,000. Of their income, workers save $2000, pay $6,000 in taxes, spend $89,000 on consumer goods, and spend $2000 on imports. Businesses spend $5,000 in new investment spending. And, foreigners spend $1000 on exports. To avoid any problems of inflation or unemployment, the government should have a budget deficit or surplus of:

a. $2,000 surplus

b. $1,000 deficit

c. $2,000 deficit

d. $1000 surplus

e. $0 deficit

35. Autarky means-----------------------------------------------------------------

a. the absence of government

b. lack of agriculture

c. self-sufficient, in the absence of international trade

d. short of exchange rates

36. The more people there are----------------------, the less the public as a whole will spend on goods and services.

a. unemployed

b. underemployed

c. employed

d. as discouraged workers

37, Which of the following theories holds that countries will produce and export products that use large amounts of production factors that they have in abundance?

a. Mercantilism

b. The theory of absolute advantage

c. The factor endowment theory

d. None of the above.

38. Suppose that a consumer has a marginal propensity to consume of 0.79. If this consumer earns an extra $1220, her saving would be expected to increase by-----------------------------

39. Many countries in Asia, Africa, and South America-----------------------

a. Are developing countries

b. Are industrialized nations

c. Have a high demand for nonessential products

d. Do not trade

40. Which two of the following are regarded as the main aims of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

a) To eliminate discrimination in world trade

b) To provide financial assistance to countries with debt

c) To reduce tariff barriers

d) To make infant industry protection illegal

e) To help give preferences to smaller economies

b) and e) a) and c) a) and d) c) and e) b) and d)

41. Last year Sophia's nominal income increased by 12% while the price level rose by 5.5%. Consequently, Sophia's real income:

a. rose by approximately 7%

b. fell by approximately 1%

c. rose by approximately 2%

d. ------------------------------------

42. Consumer surplus

a. is always positive.

b. for a particular unit of consumption is computed by taking the difference between quantity demand and quantity supplied.

c. for all units consumed is the area below demand and below market price over all the units consumed.

d. added to producer surplus provides a measure of the net gain to society from the production and consumption of the good.

43. A decline in Real GDP for six or more consecutive months is called-------------------------------

a. A trough

b. A recession

c. An expansion

d. A recovery

44. What do we call the situation where capital grows faster than the labor force?

a. economic growth

b. technological change

c. productivity growth

d. capital deepening

45. The terms of trade are-------------------------------------------

a. the cost of transportation between countries

b. the ratio of wages in two countries

c. the terms which are used in the trade negotiations

d. the rate at which two products can be exchanged

Michael spends all of his income on coffee and donuts. A coffee costs $2.50 and a donut costs $2.00. At his current consumption level, the marginal utility for coffee is 30 utils, and the marginal utility for a donut is 60 utils. Which statement best describes what Michael needs to do to maximize his utility?

Question 1 options:

1)

buy less of both coffee and donuts.

2)

buy less coffee and more donuts.

3)

buy more coffee and less donuts.

4)

spend the same amount on coffee as he does on donuts.

Question 2

What is it called when the marginal utility derived from the last dollar spent on each good is the same across all goods and the last dollar spent uses all of the available budget for the purchase of those goods?

Question 2 options:

1)

the optimal consumption bundle.

2)

the optimal production bundle.

3)

diminishing marginal utility.

4)

optimal point.

Question 3 (1 point)

What does the economic theory of marginal utility infer?

Question 3 options:

1)

consumers naturally know which consumption choices will maximize their utility.

2)

consumers who watch market trends are better at maximizing their utility than are those who do not watch those trends.

3)

one cannot maximize utility without taking an economics class that explains utility theory.

4)

one cannot maximize utility without doing the math of calculating the ratios of marginal utility divided by price.

Question 4

Kate is addicted to chocolate and does not care how much it costs. In fact, she spends more than $20 a week on chocolate. What can be concluded about elasticity in her buying decisions?

Question 4 options:

1)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

2)

Her income elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

3)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to one.

4)

Her price elasticity of demand for chocolate is equal to zero.

Save

Question 5 (1 point)

Why does the demand for a good become relatively more elastic?

Question 5 options:

1)

substitutes for the good become more available.

2)

substitutes for the good become less available.

3)

the good becomes more of a necessity.

4)

the time allowed for adjustment is shortened.

Save

Question 6 (1 point)

Assume the price of chicken per pound is $3.49 and that Americans purchase 10 million pounds per chicken every month. If the price of chicken increases to $5.49 per pound, identify what will occur to consumer surplus?

Question 6 options:

1)

consumer surplus increases.

2)

consumer surplus decreases.

3)

consumer surplus creates incentive to save.

4)

consumer surplus creates incentive to spend.

Question 7 (1 point)

What is another name for the difference between the price that consumers are willing to pay for a good and a lower price that they may actually have to pay?

Question 7 options:

1)

profit.

2)

revenue.

3)

consumer utility.

4)

consumer surplus.

Question 8

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam all want to attend a football game. The admission price is $48. Adam is willing to pay $59 for the ticket. Brian is willing to pay $39. Robert is willing to pay $45, and Sam is willing to pay $55. Based on this information, who will go to the game?

Question 8 options:

1)

Adam, Brian, Robert, and Sam.

2)

Brian and Robert.

3)

Adam and Sam.

4)

Brian, Robert, and Sam.

Save

Question 9 (1 point)

Lily is willing to pay $10 for one bracelet and $5 for a second. Patty is willing to pay $12 for one bracelet and $2 for a second. If the price is currently $8 per bracelet, identify what is the total consumer surplus after Lily and Patty make their purchases?

Question 9 options:

1)

$8

2)

$6

3)

$7

4)

$5

Question 10 (1 point)

Manfred is willing to shovel one driveway for $25, a second for $30, and a third for $35. Assume that the market rate for shoveling driveways is $32. How many driveways will Manfred shovel, what will be his total revenue, and what will be his producer surplus?

Question 10 options:

1)

Manfred will shovel two driveways for a total revenue of $64 and his producer surplus will be $9.

2)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $75 and his producer surplus will be $12.

3)

Manfred will shovel three driveways for a total revenue of $96 and his producer surplus will be $5.

4)

Manfred will shovel four driveways for a total revenue of $125 and his producer surplus will be $18.

Save

Question 11 (1 point)

What would the difference between the price that producers receive and the lower price at which they are willing to sell the good be called?

Question 11 options:

1)

producer shortage.

2)

producer surplus.

3)

consumer shortage.

4)

consumer surplus.

Save

Question 12 (1 point)

What will happen when there is an increase in the price of eBook downloads?

Question 12 options:

1)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each dollar spent on eBooks.

2)

It reduces the marginal utility derived from each hardcopy book purchased.

3)

There will not be a substitution effect.

4)

There will not be a change in the number of eBooks in the set of consumption possibilities.

Save

Question 13 (1 point)

When is price elasticity of demand utilized to measure how an individual changes the quantity they demand?

Question 13 options:

1)

when supply changes.

2)

when product quality changes.

3)

when marketing changes.

4)

when price changes.

Save

Question 14 (1 point)

Assume Mary consumes only tea and pastries. A cup of tea costs 5 euros and a pastry costs 8 euros. Her weekly income is 450 euros. Mary always drinks 2 cups of tea for every pastry she consumes. What is Mary’s optimal weekly consumption bundle?

Question 14 options:

1)

25 cups of tea and 50 pastries.

2)

50 cups of tea and 25 pastries.

3)

58 cups of tea and 20 pastries.

4)

60 cups of tea and 30 pastries.

Save

Question 15 (1 point)

When is producer surplus a positive value?

Question 15 options:

1)

the price the producer is willing to charge equals the market price.

2)

there is no tax applied to the good.

3)

the price the producer is willing to charge is less than the market price.

4)

the price the producer is willing to charge is greater than the market price.

Question 1 If it was impossible to have a comparative advantage, there would be no gains from trade. True False 4 points

Question 2 If the price of Good X is $10 and price of Good Y is $15, the slope of the budget constraint is 1.5. True False 4 points

Question 3 If the demand and supply curves have equal slopes in absolute value, the burden of a commodity tax will be split equally regardless of on whom the tax is placed. True False 4 points

Question 4 Suppose that supply is fixed at 100 units and demand is Q = 500 P. A price ceiling of $100 creates a shortage of 400 units. True False 4 points

Question 5 Housing shortages caused by rent controls are larger in the long run because the supply of housing is more elastic in the long run. True False 4 points

Question 6 Firms should exit the industry if average costs are greater than marginal costs. True False 4 points

Question 7 If a 3.67 percent increase in price causes a 1.97 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then total revenue must fall following an increase in price. True False 4 points

Question 8 Which of the following choices best illustrates the concept of Adam Smith's invisible hand ? A Vietnamese farmer grows rice; an exporter ships it to the United States, and a grocer in New York sells it to a customer. A fishery's stock of fish becomes depleted due to overfishing as boats from around the world converge. A government regulates a firm to clean up the pollutants it has released as part of its production process. An apartment building is built, which provides much needed housing, on the site of the only playground for children in that town. 4 points

Question 9 Figure: Labor Supply and Welfare Refer to the figure. The budget constraint is: ABC. BD. ABDC. ABD. 4 points Question 10 The price of coffee has increased, yet evidence suggests the demand for coffee has been stable. A possible explanation is that: there has been no change in the supply of coffee. there has been increased use of subsidies in coffee production. wages of workers in coffee production might have decreased. wages of workers in coffee production might have increased. 4 points Question 11 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding profit maximization in competitive markets? I. When all firms pursue profits, none of them achieve profits. II. When all firms pursue profits, only the most innovative will achieve profits. III. Production is divided in such a way that total costs of production are minimized. I only II only I and III only II and III only 4 points Question 12 Suppose France can produce four phones or three computers with one unit of labor, and Sweden can produce one phone or two computers with one unit of labor. If France can trade only with Sweden, then the theory of comparative advantage suggests that: France should specialize in producing phones and import computers from Sweden. France should specialize in producing computers and import phones from Sweden. France should produce both phones and computers, and import nothing from Sweden. France should import both phones and computers from Sweden. 4 points Question 13 Potato chips and popcorn are substitutes. A subsidy for potato chips will ______the demand for popcorn and the quantity of popcorn sold will ______. (Table: Barrels of Oil) Refer to the table. What is the total amount of producer surplus (per barrel of oil) earned by all four producers if the market price per barrel of oil is $51? Table: Barrels of Oil Minimum willingness to sell Country a single barrel of oil Country A $32.00 Country B 16.00 Country C 17.25 Country D 56.99 increase; increase increase; decrease decrease; decrease decrease; increase 4 points Question 14 In the market for Good X a necessity good without any good substitutes the workers and capital in the industry can easily find work producing other goods. The burden of the tax is likely to fall: more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more inelastic than supply. evenly between buyers and sellers. more heavily on sellers, given that supply is more inelastic than demand. more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more elastic than supply. 4 points Question 15 A U.S. manufacturer arranges to purchase parts from a German supplier for 500,000 euros in six months. The U.S. manufacturer is concerned that the dollar will depreciate against the euro, meaning the dollar cost of the 500,000 euros will rise. What should the U.S. manufacturer do? lobby the Fed to lower interest rates on six-month T-bills buy a futures contract that fixes the dollar cost of 500,000 euros in six months buy an exchange rate contract that pegs the interest rate to the discount rate on interbank loans sell a naked option to cover the output spread 4 points Question 16 Which of the following scenarios would cause a speculator to buy low and sell high ? Farmers expect to have a bumper harvest of corn next year. Imports of corn begin to flood the country. The government is expected to pass legislation making it mandatory for all vehicles to use corn-based fuels within one year. The government is expected to subsidize corn production for farmers. 4 points Question 17 In a market with a price ceiling which of the following is TRUE? Buyers and sellers experience unexploited gains from trade. Resources are allocated to their most efficient uses. The supply of goods is sold by the sellers with the lowest costs. The supply of goods is bought by the buyers with the highest willingness to pay. 4 points Question 18 Consider the following statements: I. Relative to a no-trade situation, if the United States exported wheat, the U.S. domestic wheat price would rise and domestic production of wheat would expand. II. Relative to a no-trade situation, international trade causes prices of all goods to rise. I is true; II is false. I is false; II is true. Both I and II are true. Both I and II are false. 4 points Question 19 As the price of a good fluctuates, a profit-maximizing firm will expand or contract production along its: average cost curve. average product curve. marginal cost curve. marginal product curve. 4 points Question 20 An increase in demand and a decrease in supply occur in a market. What happens to the equilibrium price and quantity? The equilibrium price decreases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price decreases; the equilibrium quantity increases. The equilibrium price increases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price increases; the equilibrium quantity decreases.