MICB 201 Chapter Notes - Chapter 03-1: Ribonuclease E, Ribonuclease, Operon

67 views8 pages

burgundyshark607

30 Dec 2012

School

Department

Course

Professor

For unlimited access to Textbook Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

Define the terms genome, genotype, phenotype, chromosome and nucleoid in the context of the cell structure and characteristics of prokaryotes. Phenotype physical features and functional traits of an organism, a reflection of the proteins possessed at any point in time. Gene unit of genetic information, segment of dna which possesses info specifying the sequence of aa in a protein or the sequence of nt in a stable rna molecule. Genotype particular set of genes in the organism"s genome. Genome total physical dna that specifies an organism"s characteristics: explain the importance of proteins and diversity of protein function to life. Structure, catalysis, regulation, transport, sensing/signalling, force-generation: describe how genes and proteins are named. Protein: rpsl: explain why and how chromosomal dna is folded and compacted in bacteria and archaea. In bacteria, small positively charged polyamines used to neutralize negatively charged phosphates of dna reducing repulsive forces and helping to compact the. Bacteria produce enzymes that can twice dna into supercoils.

Related Questions

True or False????? HELP

1. In the field of epidemiology, increased prevalence of a disease in a population is the universal signal that disease control and treatment are not effective.

2. Cytoplasmic membranes of prokaryotes typically contain more proteins than cytoplasmic membranes of eukaryotes microorganisms.
3. Sanger (or dideoxy) DNA sequencing produces relatively short DNA sequence data, but is by far the least expensive DNA sequencing method currently available.
4. The (italicizes) abbreviation lac Z refers explicitly to the beta galactosidase protein/ enzyme.
5. Archaeal pathogens have been linked to some of the most virulent infectious diseases. 6. A bacterial mutant that is unable to make an amino acid required for growth (relative to its wild-type strain is termed an auxotroph.
7. When counting plaques to enumerate phage particles (as in the BIOL2026 Laboratory), the plaque represents lacK, not presence, of bacterial growth.
8. Because of competition with plant roots for nutrients, microbial numbers in the rhizosphere are typically much lower than in surrounding bulk soil.
9. Chemolithoautotrophy is the strategy that facilitates the existence of biological communities deep beneath the earthâs surface and near hydrothermal vents.

10. In a primary treatment (1 Â°) system of a municipal sewage/ wastewater treatment plant, the main goal is to remove ammonium (NH4+) using specific bacterial enrichment cultures.
11. The small intestine in human is the main site of microbial breakdown of partially digested food.
12. Root nodules of legumes contain nitrogen fixing bacteria.
13. Anoxygenic photosynthesis involves using/ removing electrons from H2O.
14. Algae and Cyanobacteria utilize generally the same two-photosystem biochemical mechanisms in the light- reaction of photosynthesis.
15. In bacteria, the only known reason proton motive force is generated is to power ATP synthase in cellular respiration/ oxidative phosphorylation.
16. Anaerobic respiration is only carried out by prokaryotes, however fermentation can be carried out by both prokaryote and eukaryal microorganism.

17. The general structure and biochemical âmotorsâ of flagella are similar between Bacteria and eukaryotic cells, but fundamentally different in the Archaea.
18. Antibiotic resistance genes appeared in microbes (for the first time ever) only after human .. producing and releasing massive amounts of antibiotics to the environment.
19. Experiment by Esther Lederberg, and then later by Luria and Delbruck (that won them a Nobel prize), illustrated that genetic mutations in bacteria arose in the absence of selective pressures, rather than in response to selection.
20. Quaternary sensing is a mechanism used by bacteria to sense other bacteria and regulate gene expression accordingly (e.g. In the case of expressing the liac operon or initiating EPS production in biofilms).

13. The arms of a human and the wing of a bat are _________________ structures, composed of the same bones that have been modified for different functions.

analogous

vestigial

c.	homologous

d.	convergent

14. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. People who are homozygous for the disease-causing allele have skin that is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet radiation; this can lead to skin cancer at an early age. The mutation that causes this disorder is in a gene that functions:

a.	to repair DNA by excising (removing) nucleotides damaged by UV light.

b.	in lysosomes, to break down lipids that otherwise accumulate in the nervous system.

c.	to produce the UV blocking pigment melanin in the skin cells

d.	in red blood cells to carry oxygen to the skin.

15. The Amish are a religious sect descended from a small group of colonists who came to the United States over 200 years ago. Their religious beliefs have kept them isolated from society. The Amish have a much higher than average incidence of both polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) and dwarfism in their communities. This is most likely explained by:

a.	inheritance of acquired characters.

b.	the founder effect.

c.	disruptive selection.

d.	natural selection.

16. In the structure of DNA that Watson and Crick proposed, the sides of the "ladder" of the DNA molecule are always the same distance apart, making the molecule a constant width. This occurs because when the bases hydrogen bond to form the rungs of the "ladder", a:

a.	purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.

b.	purine always pairs with a purine.

c.	pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrmidine.

d.	The structure of the double helix is not determined by how the bases pair.

17. The RNA transcript of DNA that travels to the cytoplasm, carrying the instructions to make a protein, is called:

rRNA.

tRNA.

mRNA.

d.	RNA polymerase.

18. When DNA is replicated, the error rate is approximately one error for every 10,000 nucleotides copied. However, that error rate is reduced to only 1 error for every 1 billion nucleotides. The DNA sequence is "corrected" by:

a.	repeating S phase to see if the error rate is lower the second time around.

b.	enzymes that proofread the DNA and repair errors.

c.	messenger RNA during the process of transcription.

d.	Any errors made during DNA replication cannot be corrected. If errors are detected after S phase, the cell is destroyed.

19. Mendel's principle of segregation says that:

a.	when gametes are formed, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular gene.

b.	some genes are dominant to others.

c.	a testcross must be used to determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.

d.	all of the above

20. Tay-Sachs disease is lethal before reproductive age, but the allele persists in Louisiana French Canadians because:

a.	it is a dominant allele.

b.	new mutations causing this disease are common in that population.

c.	it is not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.

d.	the disease is contagious and can be transmitted by nonheritable means.

21. Physical features that are similar in organisms which are not closely related to each other are most likely a result of ____________. A good example of this is the similarities seen between some marsupial and placental mammals.

a.	natural selection.

b.	adaptation to similar environments

c.	convergent evolution

d.	All of the above phrases can be used to correctly fill this blank.

22. In humans, which of the following sex chromosome compliments could be found in males?

23. The proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes:

a.	help to package the DNA within the nucleus.

b.	are involved in gene expression, through binding with the DNA.

c.	may be replicating or transcribing the DNA.

d.	All of these are true of proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes.

24. A sequence of DNA nucleotides that contains the information to produce a single protein is a(n):

codon.

gene.

c.	polypeptide.

d.	anticodon.

whitelizard672

Question 1

The process by which RNA is synthesized using DNA as a template is â¦

Select one:

a. replication

b. transcription

c. translation

d. inspiration

Question 2

Which of the following occurs during meiosis but not mitosis?

Select one:

a. DNA condenses into chromosomes

b. nuclear envelop disappears

c. homologous chromosomes separate

d. sister chromatids separate

Question 3

Which part of the animal life cycle is haploid?

Select one:

a. gamete

b. zygote

c. sporophyte

d. spore

Question 4

Single celled eukaryotic organisms are â¦

Select one:

a. viruses

b. bacterial

c. archaea

d. protists

Question 5

Which type of cellular division results in the formation of diploid cells from a diploid parent cell?

Select one:

a. mitosis

b. meiosis

c. interphase

d. A and B but not C

e. all of the above

Question 6

A sequence of DNA that codes for a single protein is a â¦

Select one:

a. gene

b. ribosome

c. mRNA

d. none of the above

Question 7

Which of the following is characteristic of animals?

Select one:

a. heterotrophic

b. sexual reproduction

c. embryonic development

d. all of the above

Question 8

All genes have only two possible alleles.

Select one:

True

False

Question 9

The presence of membrane-bound organelles is characteristic of â¦

Select one:

a. prokaryotes

b. viruses

c. bacteria

d. eukaryotes

Question 10

What are the building blocks of proteins?

Select one:

a. fatty acids

b. amino acids

c. nucleic acids

d. all of the above

Question 11

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

Select one:

a. Mitosis

b. Interphase

c. Meiosis

d. Replicosis

Question 12

Which of the following characteristic is shared among fungi and animals?

Select one:

a. autotrophic

b. heterotrophic

c. cell walls

d. absorb nutrients

Question 13

A error in DNA replication that goes unrepaired is a â¦

Select one:

a. chromosome

b. chromatid

c. mutation

d. none of the above

Question 14

Alternate forms of a gene are called ________.

Select one:

a. chromatids

b. chromosomes

c. ribosomal subunits

d. alleles

Question 15

The physical expression of a genotype is the phenotype.

Select one:

True

False

Question 16

In complete dominance, a heterozygous genotype results in â¦

Select one:

a. a recessive phenotype

b. a dominant phenotype

c. a third and unique phenotype

d. none of the above

Question 17

Which theory explains the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes?

Select one:

a. phagocytosis

b. endosymbiosis

c. pinocytosis

d. none of the above

Question 18

Which scientist experimented with plants to describe patterns of inheritance?

Select one:

a. Mendel

b. Chase

c. Einstein

d. Watson

Question 19

Which cellular organelle contains aerobic cellular respiration?

Select one:

a. chloroplasts

b. mitochondria

c. nucleus

d. lysosome

Question 20

Which of the following statements is false?

Select one:

a. Haploid gametes are formed by meiosis

b. Mitosis forms genetically identical daughter cells

c. Mitosis results in the formation of four daughter cells from a single parent cell

d. Mitosis forms diploid daughter cells from a diploid parent cell

Question 21

The first forms of life on Earth were ________.

Select one:

a. plants

b. microorganisms

c. birds

d. dinosaurs

Question 22

Which of the following is used to separate chromosomes during nuclear division?

Select one:

a. cytoskeleton

b. microtubules

c. actin and myosin

d. amoeboid movement

e. all of the above

Question 23

Which generation is most dominant in more primitive plants?

Select one:

a. bryophyte

b. sporophyte

c. gametophyte

d. androphyte

Question 24

Which of the following is characteristic of plants?

Select one:

a. autotrophic

b. contain chloroplasts

c. multicellular

d. all of the above

Question 25

During which phase of mitosis do chromosome line up along the middle of the cell?

Select one:

a. prophase

b. metaphase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

Question 26

During which phase of mitosis does DNA condense into distinct chromosomes?

Select one:

a. prophase

b. metaphase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

Question 27

The process by which DNA is used as a template to make new DNA is â¦

Select one:

a. translation

b. replication

c. transcription

d. allocation

Question 28

Which of the following is characteristic of plant but not animal cells?

Select one:

a. chloroplasts

b. water vacuole

c. cell wall

d. all of the above

Question 29

Which meiotic division is most like mitosis?

Select one:

a. Meiosis I

b. Meiosis II

c. Meiosis III

d. Meiosis IV

Question 30

Which enzyme catalyzes replication?

Select one:

a. DNA polymerase

b. RNA polymerase

c. Ribosome

d. all of the above

MICB 201 Chapter Notes - Chapter 03-1: Ribonuclease E, Ribonuclease, Operon

Document Summary

Get access

Related Documents

MICB 201 Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Transposase, Genomic Island, Inverted Repeat

MICB 201 Lecture Notes - Lecture 3: Start Codon, Membrane Transport Protein, Mhc Class I Polypeptide-Related Sequence B

MICB 201 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Low Copy Number, Dna Replication, Prophage

Related Questions