ECON102 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Human Capital, Aggregate Supply, Output Gap

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cerisegiraffe538

17 Apr 2018

School

University of Alberta

Department

Economics

Course

ECON102

Professor

Andrew Wong

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Lecture 9 chapter 9 (aggregate supply & macroeconomic equilibrium) Aggregate supply will be discussed in two ways in this chapter: short-run and long-run aggregate supplies. Macroeconomic equilibrium means that we will combine aggregate demand (from. Chapter 8) and then aggregate supply (from this chapter) and then find the equilibrium for the economy. Output gaps will then be discussed based on the macroeconomic equilibrium, remember there is two types of output gaps, inflationary and recessionary gaps (covered in chapter 6). Inflationary gap: actual gdp is higher than the potential gdp (boom: recessionary gap: actual gdp is less than the potential gdp (bust) Then, we will cover how to close the output gaps using self-correction (automatic) Short-run aggregate supply: shows the positive relation between the price and gdp when all input prices are constant. Contracts fix prices of inputs in the short-run. policies. Short-run (above graph) is sloped positive due to: profit effect: price level increases when the input prices are constant.

Related Questions

1. In the long run, when prices are perfectly flexible:

a. aggregate supply is vertical and a market economy is self-correcting.

b. a market economy cannot self-correct.

c. government will be required to set prices to maintain equilibrium.

d. changes in aggregate demand cause equilibrium real GDP to change.

2. An increase in household wealth when the SRAS curve is upward sloping:

a. leads to an increase in the price level but has no impact on real GDP

b. has no impact on the price level but leads to an increase in real GDP

c. leads to an increase in both the price level and real GDP

d. has no impact on the price level or real GDP

3. In the long run, continued increases in aggregate demand not matched by similar increases in aggregate supply will cause:

a. an increase in the full-employment level of real GDP

b. a recessionary gap

c. a decrease in the price level

d. an increase in the price level

4. The vertical long-run aggregate supply curve implies that:

a. changes in aggregate demand will not affect the price level

b. the short-run aggregate supply curve is also vertical

c. natural or full-employment real GDP does not depend on the price level, in the long run

d. natural or full-employment real GDP is the same as the equilibrium real GDP in the short run

5. A rightward shift of the long-run aggregate supply curve illustrates:

a. economic growth

b. a recessionary gap

c. an inflationary gap

d. a decrease in natural real GDP

6. When the economy is in a recessionary gap

a. there is a surplus of labor

b. there is a shortage of labor

c. it is producing a real GDP level that is greater than natural real GDP

d. the unemployment rate is less than the natural unemployment rate

7. If the actual unemployment rate is less than the natural unemployment rate:

a. a recessionary gap exists and wages are likely to rise

b. an inflationary gap exists and wages are likely to rise

c. a recessionary gap exists and wages are likely to fall

d. an inflationary gap exists and wages are likely to fall

8. An economy in long-run equilibrium is producing:

a. a level of real GDP that is greater than its natural real GDP

b. where both the price level and real output are maximized

c. a level of real GDP equal to its natural real GDP

d. in the vertical range of aggregate demand.

crimsonreindeer720

1) If actual (equilibrium ) real GDP is less than the full-employment, or natural, level of real GDP, then wages and other input prices are expected to:

a. fall and SRAS to shift to the left until long-run equilibrium is achieved.

b. fall and SRAS to shift to the right until long-run equilibrium is achieved.

c. rise and SRAS to shift to the left until long-run equilibrium is achieved.

d. rise and SRAS to shift to the right until long-run equilibrium is achieved.

2) In a self-regulating economy, inflationary gaps are automatically eliminated in the long run by:

a. decreases in wage rates that cause short-run aggregate supply to shift rightward.

b. decreases in wage rates that cause short-run aggregate supply to shift leftward.

c. increases in wage rates that cause short-run aggregate supply to shift rightward.

d. increases in wage rates that cause short-run aggregate supply to shift leftward.

3) Assume the economy is initially in equilibrium at the full-employment level of real GDP. If businesses and consumers become pessimistic regarding future economic conditions, ceteris paribus, the aggregate demand curve will shift to the ________, causing the level of output to ______.

a. left; fall

b. right; fall

c. left; rise

d. right; rise

4) Economists that advocate a macroeconomic policy of laissez-faire:

a. believe the economy is self-regulating only if the government intervenes to move the economy to equilibrium at natural real GDP.

b. believe the economy is self-regulating and will automatically move to equilibrium at natural real GDP in the long run.

c. also advocate central planning and government control of resources.

d. also advocate active government intervention in the economy.

5) Which of the following summarizes the process for closing a recessionary gap if the economy is self-regulating?

a. Labor shortages put upward pressure on wages, which leads to higher costs of production and a decrease in short-run aggregate supply.

b. Labor shortages put downward pressure on wages, which leads to increases in employment and spending and an increase in aggregate demand.

c. Unemployed resources put upward pressure on the price level, which leads to higher wages, increases in spending, and increases in aggregate demand.

d. Unemployed resources put downward pressure on the price level, which leads to lower costs of production and an increase in short-run aggregate supply.

cyanmallard742

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ECON102 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Human Capital, Aggregate Supply, Output Gap

ECON102 Full Course Notes

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