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ECON 20 Lecture Notes - Lecture 22: French Wine, International Trade, Aggregate Demand

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rosebuffalo981
19 Oct 2020
School
Irvine Valley College
Department
Economics
Course
ECON 20
Professor
mitton

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Document Summary

International trade consists of the export and import components of aggregate demand. Exports are those goods and services produced domestically and sent to foreign countries. Imports are all goods and services produced by foreign countries and consumed domestically. Exports and imports can be consumption goods/services or investment capital. Remember that we subtract imports from the gdp equation because they are included in the consumption or investment categories. For example, if you buy a bottle of french wine, it is included in consumption, but then it must be subtracted from gdp in imports: magnitude of international trade. Over the last few decades, the u. s. economy has become more open, meaning there is much more international trade. Exports as a share of gdp have grown from 4. 3 percent in 1970 to 12. 8 percent in 2010. Imports have increased from 5. 7 percent to 16. 1 percent over the same period. These figures indicate a multifold expansion of trade.

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Related Questions

In this module, we have learned that the trade balance, interest rates, and exchange rates are all related in an economic and fiscal policy. For decades, the United States and China have traded products through imports and exports, and for the most part, China is able to produce items at a lesser cost than the United States. Americans love a good value, but they also want quality. China, on the other hand, has grown dramatically and continued with “industrializing” the country, which has cost the government billions of dollars. Throughout this course, we will investigate the ongoing trade between these two countries, the costs of multinational companies that expand or complete business through the import and export exchange, and how the ongoing practice may create economic changes and instability for the individual organization.

Research the balance of trade in the United States and China and relate how historical changes in exchange and interest rates have affected imports and exports between the two countries.

Specifically address the following:

Explain how trade balance, interest rates, and exchange rates are related, and cite an example of how a rise or fall in one changes the others.

Does a deficit in China or the United States change the overall advantage or disadvantage of trade? Why?

Explore how the cost and quantity of imports and exports, such as electronic equipment, may be challenged by the rise and fall of these rates.

Incorporate the fluctuations of supply and demand into the costs incurred and decide ways management calculates estimations for further product needs.

Explain the philosophy of “international crowding out,” citing an example of how this may occur, and describe how excessive borrowing in one country has affected interest rates in the United States.

As an example, China and the United States “borrow” from each other to finance needs by purchasing government-backed securities from the other country. This practice provides one country with additional funds and also gives the purchasing country more control over interest rates or “borrowing costs” in the future. How does this influence interest rates in the domestic country and foreign country? Can one country gain control over another financially by continually financing another country’s debt?

31. A country's tax system influences the attractiveness of investing in that country and affects the relative level of profitability for an MNC.

a. True

b. False

32. Points inside a production possibilities frontier represent

a. unattainable production combinations

b. efficiency

c. situations where supply exceeds demand

d. unemployment of resources

33. Firms in a high-wage nation like the U.S. can compete effectively with imports from low-wage nations if

a. the U.S. reduces tariffs on imports

b. low-wage nations impose tariffs on U.S. made goods

c. labor productivity is higher in the low-wage nation

d. labor productivity is higher in the U.S.

34. Assume that production in the United States is valued at $100,000. National income is therefore $100,000. Of their income, workers save $2000, pay $6,000 in taxes, spend $89,000 on consumer goods, and spend $2000 on imports. Businesses spend $5,000 in new investment spending. And, foreigners spend $1000 on exports. To avoid any problems of inflation or unemployment, the government should have a budget deficit or surplus of:

a. $2,000 surplus

b. $1,000 deficit

c. $2,000 deficit

d. $1000 surplus

e. $0 deficit

35. Autarky means-----------------------------------------------------------------

a. the absence of government

b. lack of agriculture

c. self-sufficient, in the absence of international trade

d. short of exchange rates

36. The more people there are----------------------, the less the public as a whole will spend on goods and services.

a. unemployed

b. underemployed

c. employed

d. as discouraged workers

37, Which of the following theories holds that countries will produce and export products that use large amounts of production factors that they have in abundance?

a. Mercantilism

b. The theory of absolute advantage

c. The factor endowment theory

d. None of the above.

38. Suppose that a consumer has a marginal propensity to consume of 0.79. If this consumer earns an extra $1220, her saving would be expected to increase by-----------------------------

39. Many countries in Asia, Africa, and South America-----------------------

a. Are developing countries

b. Are industrialized nations

c. Have a high demand for nonessential products

d. Do not trade

40. Which two of the following are regarded as the main aims of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

a) To eliminate discrimination in world trade

b) To provide financial assistance to countries with debt

c) To reduce tariff barriers

d) To make infant industry protection illegal

e) To help give preferences to smaller economies

b) and e) a) and c) a) and d) c) and e) b) and d)

41. Last year Sophia's nominal income increased by 12% while the price level rose by 5.5%. Consequently, Sophia's real income:

a. rose by approximately 7%

b. fell by approximately 1%

c. rose by approximately 2%

d. ------------------------------------

42. Consumer surplus

a. is always positive.

b. for a particular unit of consumption is computed by taking the difference between quantity demand and quantity supplied.

c. for all units consumed is the area below demand and below market price over all the units consumed.

d. added to producer surplus provides a measure of the net gain to society from the production and consumption of the good.

43. A decline in Real GDP for six or more consecutive months is called-------------------------------

a. A trough

b. A recession

c. An expansion

d. A recovery

44. What do we call the situation where capital grows faster than the labor force?

a. economic growth

b. technological change

c. productivity growth

d. capital deepening

45. The terms of trade are-------------------------------------------

a. the cost of transportation between countries

b. the ratio of wages in two countries

c. the terms which are used in the trade negotiations

d. the rate at which two products can be exchanged

Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as
a. real GDP
b. personal income
c. national wealth
d. national income

Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals
a. depreciation
b. exports
c. imports
d. net inventory change

Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income.
a. true
b. false

Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
a. true
b. false

Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n)
a. final good
b. intermediate good
c. consumer good
d. capital consumption allowance

Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting.
a. true
b. false

Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good
a. exceeds the price of the final good
b. equals the price of the final good
c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production
d. both (b) and (c)

Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
a. true
b. false

Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
a. true
b. false

Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by
a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries
c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources
d. both (a) and (c)

Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP.
a. true
b. false

Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.)
a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this
b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this
c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output
d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output

Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply.
a. true
b. false

Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
a. true
b. false

Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment.
a. true
b. false

Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
a. true
b. false

Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise?
a. 30 percent
b. 16.7 percent
c. 8.33 percent
d. 12 percent

Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have
a. increased about 40 percent
b. increased slightly
c. remained about the same
d. declined

Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
a. $50,000
b. $500
c. $5,000
d. $4,500

Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity.
a. true
b. false

Q21. The current base period for the CPI is
a. 1967
b. 1977
c. 1982–1984
d. 1990

Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when
a. planned I equals planned S
b. planned I is less than planned S
c. planned I is greater than planned S
d. there is a surplus government budget

Q23. COLA is a form of indexation.
a. true
b. false

Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false

Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act
a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act
b. prevented mergers of banks
c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies
d. eliminated all banking regulations

Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.
a. true
b. false

Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is
a. the discount rate
b. the reserve requirement
c. open-market operations
d. moral suasion

Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
a. Treasury bills
b. long-term U.S. government bonds
c. bonds of publicly traded corporations
d. overnight loans of major banks

Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
a. 6 members
b. 7 members
c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank
d. 20 members

Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement.
a. true
b. false

Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the
a. prime rate
b. federal funds rate
c. discount rate
d. T-bill rate

Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window.
a. true
b. false

Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report.
a. true
b. false

Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share?
a. cash
b. personal checks
c. debit cards
d. credit cards

Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves.
a. true
b. false

Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System.
a. true
b. false

Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around
a. 4 regional banks
b. 6 regional banks
c. 12 district banks
d. 1 bank with several branches

Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
a. true
b. false

Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is
a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods
b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods
c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods
d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level

Q40. The consumption function shows
a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital
b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources
c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods
d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods

Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures,
a. there will be no response from businesses
b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output
c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output
d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output

Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by
a. $30 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $45 billion
d. $90 billion

Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the
a. multiplier effect
b. marginal propensity to consume
c. marginal propensity to invest
d. consumption function

Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier.
a. true
b. false

Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely.
a. true
b. false

Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
a. true
b. false

Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation.
a. true
b. false

Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income.
a. true
b. false

Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand.
a. true
b. false

Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to
a. reduce total employment in the United States
b. increase total employment in the foreign country
c. reduce total output in the United States
d. increase total output in the United States