MMG 301 Lecture Notes - Lecture 34: Herd Immunity, Basic Reproduction Number

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amberfish679

4 Apr 2017

School

MSU

Department

Microbio & Molecular Genetics

Course

MMG 301

Professor

Scott Mulrooney

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Document Summary

Lecture 34: know the definitions presented on slides 2 and 3. An epidemic curve shows when a disease is most prevalent: know the difference between a common source and host-to-host transmission and what their epi curves look like. Mortality = (deaths due to disease)/(total population of individuals); morbidity= (incidence of a disease)/(total population of individuals); the number of infected individuals that one infected individual creates: review the stages of a chronic infection. Incubation, acute, decline: know when acutely infected individuals can transmit pathogens to others. Late incubation, acute, and late decline: be able to describe a chronic infection, and what subclinical symptoms mean. A persistent, long-lasting disease that can last months or years; symptoms are mild to non-existent: know the difference between fomites, vectors, and carriers.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1 1. The relative importance or burden of a disease within a population will depend on a number of factors including : A. Disease frequency B. Disease severity C. Disease consequences D. All of the above

QUESTION 2 1 . With the epidemiologic transition, there is a reduction in malnutrition and _____ . A. Communicable diseases B. Injuries C. Non-communicable chronic diseases D. Mental health disorders

QUESTION 3 1. A major challenge to developing a burden of disease profile in low and middle-income countries relates to A. Unwillingness to share complete information B. Conflicting disease definitions C. Challenges obtaining information related to cause of death D. All of the above

QUESTION 4 1. The demographic transition describes which of the following changes to society A. Changes in birth and death rates that reflect a modern society B. Declines in mortality followed by a reduction in fertility C. A change in the age structure of the population D. All of the above

QUESTION 5 1. Measures of health status that combine mortality and morbidity data A. Facilitate comparisons both within and across populations B. Help estimate the quantitative health benefits from interventions C. Serve as tools to assist with resource allocation D. All of the above

QUESTION 6 1. The disability-adjusted life year is defined as A. A health gap population summary measure that combines time lost due to disability with that lost due to death B. A measure to compare the gap between the current situation to that of an ideal situation C. A measure that combines the amount of healthy life lost due to morbidity with that lost due to injury. D. Answers B and C

QUESTION 7 1. True or false? A key limitation to mortality-based indicators is that they fail to account for the morbidity caused by disease. True False

QUESTION 8 1. The most widely used composite measure of population health is the DALY, and this epidemiological measure is the sum of morbidity and ________data. A. Years of life lost (YLL) B. Morbidity C. Infant mortality rates (IMR) D. none of the above

QUESTION 9 1. What would be the best source of information on adult and infant mortality (in high income countries)? A. Disease registers B. Vital statistics C. Special survey study D. Hospital clinic statistics

QUESTION 10 1. Which term is best used to describe the proportion of people in a population who have a defined disease at a specific point of time? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 11 1. Which term is best used to describe new cases of disease occurring in a population? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 12 1. Which term is used to describe the absence or presence of illness or disease? A. Demography B. Morbidity C. Mortality D. Vitality

QUESTION 13 1. Mortality (death indicators) include: A. Mortality rate B. Infant mortality rate C. Neonatal morality rate D. All of the above

QUESTION 14 1. True or false? The value of life is often implicit in the way resource allocation decisions are made, which suggests that these decisions should be as explicit, open, and transparent as possible. True False

QUESTION 15 1. _________________is projected as the number one leading cause of disease burden in 2030. A. Ischemic heart disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. HIV/AIDS D. Unipolar depression

QUESTION 16 1. Some of the negative aspects of globalization include A. Greater insecurity of employment B. Poorer housing and sanitation due to rapid urbanization C. Greater vulnerability to environmental degradation D. All of the above

QUESTION 17 1. Current concerns about climate change focus on several developments including A. Rising global average land and sea surface temperature B. Increasing frequency of extreme weather conditions C. Both A and B D. None of the above

QUESTION 18 1. True or false? Diseases carried by mosquitoes are especially sensitive to meteorological conditions because they are vulnerable to changes in the ambient temperature. As a result of changing temperatures, infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue have decreased in incidence and geographic range. True False

QUESTION 19 1. True or false? International cooperation of infectious disease control has a long history that includes obligatory reporting of outbreaks of specific diseases. However, compliance with obligatory reporting has been poor due to economic consequences that have often accompanied notification of disease outbreaks. True False

QUESTION 20 1. True or false? Globalization is a relatively new phenomenon that began in the mid-20th century. True False

1. The risk of acquiring disease is measured by the

a. Incidence rate

b. Incidence rate times the average duration of the disease

c. Incidence rate divided by the prevalence rate

d. Prevalence rate

e. Prevalence rate times the average duration of the disease

2. The strength of an association between a factor and a disease is best measure by .

a. Incubation rate

b. Incidence of the disease in the total population

c. Prevalence of the factor

d. Attributable risk

e. Relative risk

3. Case fatality rate for a given disease refers to

a. The crude mortality rate per 100,000 population

b. Cause-specific mortality rate due to the disease

c. A fatal outcome of any disease

d. The percentage of deaths among cases of the disease

e. The proportion of deaths due to the disease among all deaths from all causes

4. An investigator is interested in etiology of neonatal jaundice. To study this condition, he selected 100 children who were diagnosed with this condition and 100 children born in the same period and in the same hospital who did not have a diagnosis of neonatal jaundice. He then reviewed the obstetrical and delivery records of their mothers to determine various prenatal and perinatal exposures. This is an example of a(n):

a. Cross-sectional study

b. Case-control study

c. Cohort study

d. Clinical trial

e. Experiment

5. Which of the following statements describes the major advantages of a randomized clinical trial?

a. It avoids observer bias

b. It lends itself to ethical justification

c. It yields results replicable in other patients

d. It rules out self-selection of participants to the different treatment groups

d. It enrolls representative patients

6. A survey conducted in England revealed that of 224 families in which there had been a known case of poliomyelitis, 56 maintained parakeets as a family pet. In another British survey, 30 out of 99 poliomyelitis patients questioned kept parakeets. The inference that there is some relationship between the presence of a parakeet in a household and the occurrence of poliomyelitis among household members is

a. Correct b.

Incorrect because of failure to distinguish between incidence and prevalence

c. Incorrect because a proportionate ratio is used when a rate is required to support the inference

d. Incorrect because a failure to recognize a possible cohort phenomenon

e. Incorrect because there is no control or comparison group.

7. An investigator determines the correlation coefficient between triglyceride levels and degree of atherosclerosis in sampled blood vessels to be +1.67. On the basis of this you would conclude that:

a. Triglyceride level is a good predictor of atherosclerosis

b. Triglyceride level is not a good predictor of atherosclerosis

c. High triglyceride levels cause atherosclerosis

d. Atherosclerosis cause high triglyceride levels

e. The investigator has incorrectly determined the correlation coefficient

8. A screening test of known sensitivity and specificity is applied to two populations. The prevalence of the disease being screened for is 10% in population A and is 1% in population B. Which of the following is true?

a. The percent of all negative tests that have false-negative results is lower in population A than in population B.

b. Specificity is lower in population A than in population B.

c. Reliability is higher in population A than in population B.

d. The percent of all positive tests that have false-positive results is lower in population A than in population B.

e. Specificity is higher in population A than in population B.

9. Serum cholesterol levels are obtained for four healthy men. The probability that all will fall below the 10th percentile of the distribution of cholesterol for healthy males is:

a. 0.4

b. 1 â (0.1)4

c. (0.1)4

d. (0.9)4

e. Cannot be determined from these data

10. In a diabetes screening program, the screening level for a positive blood sugar level in test 1 is set at 160 mg/dl, and in test 2 at 130 mg/dl. The sensitivity is:

a. Greater in test 1

b. Greater in test 2

c. Equal in test 1 and 2

d. Dependent on the size of the population being evaluated

44.Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob. Immediately after touching the knob, Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n) a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 44.A man infected with a viral respiratory infection sneezes and releases tiny droplets containing viral particles. Two minutes later, a woman breathes in some of these tiny droplets and becomes infected by the same viral infection. The movement of this virus from one individual to another is best described as the a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission. b. reservoir. d. host. 45. Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States, the disease is considered nonendemic. What differentiates measles from endemic diseases, such as chickenpox? a. Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak. b. Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area. c. Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks. d. Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans. 46. Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working? a. The disease becomes endemic. b. The disease prevalence increases. c. The disease incidence decreases. d. Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year. 47. Which of the following statements describes one of the three steps of surveillance used for infectious diseases? a. Patients with infectious diseases are required to be seen by a physician at the CDC. b. Physicians are required to submit all patient records electronically to the CDC for review. c. Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious disease is suspected. d. Incidence data is collected in all cases of bacterial infections within the United States. 48. Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common? a. urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia b. pneumonia, urinary tract, surgical wounds c. septicemia, surgical wounds, diarrhea d. diarrhea, urinary tract, pneumonia 49. Mary, an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter, is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Three days after her admission, Maryâs husband receives a call from the hospital. He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection. Which of the following statements is true? a. The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia. b. Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection. c. Of all hospital patients, 25â30% develop nosocomial infections. d. Maryâs nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation. 50. A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose. He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if a. infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical. b. the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical. c. all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were cared for by this nurse. d. all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of heart problems. 51. Which of the following is NOT an example of aseptic technique? a. use of antiseptic on skin prior to insertion of an IV line b. use of latex gloves during the insertion of an indwelling catheter c. disinfection of doorknobs and other inert surfaces d. use of trash can liners in all patient rooms 52. An individual case of diphtheria, a notifiable infectious disease, in a patient in Florida is confirmed by laboratory testing. This patientâs physician would be required to a. send a letter to the WHO in Geneva, Switzerland. b. contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia. c. treat the patient regardless of health insurance status. d. quarantine the patient for eight weeks. 53. Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS. Epidemiologists will most likely a. quarantine the entire province immediately. b. contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States. c. wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported. d. try to identify the index case. 54. How does vaccinating wild rodents or poultry influence human health? a. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry has no effect on human health. b. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to humans. c. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces the migration of microbes into temperate regions. d. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry increases the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria. 55. Which of the following scenarios would help meet the goal of the One Health Initiative? a. vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted to humans b. taking steps to reduce carbon dioxide emissions to reduce the effects of climate change c. providing sanitation after flooding events to prevent gastrointestinal infections in humans d. increasing compliance during antibiotic treatment of tuberculosis patients to prevent emergence of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis 56. If humans continue to develop rapid transportation systems into more parts of the world, we should expect to see a. pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems. b. an increase in detection of blood-borne pathogens. c. a decrease in human encroachment into tropical rain forests. d. an increase in the spread of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. 57. How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases? a. AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries. b. AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world. c. AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were declining in underdeveloped countries. d. AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all countries. 58. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change? a. Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions. b. Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions. c. Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions. d. Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal. 59. What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon? a. a high infectious dose c. person-to-person transmission b. transmission via an insect vector d. quick pathogen detection systems

MMG 301 Lecture Notes - Lecture 34: Herd Immunity, Basic Reproduction Number

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