BIOL 100 Lecture Notes - Lecture 22: Proximate And Ultimate Causation, Circadian Rhythm, Ethology

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23 Nov 2016

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Discuss the differences between proximate and ultimate causations of behavior and identify types of each. Behavior- action that is done by muscles that are under control of nervous system in response to a stimulus. Study of ecological and evolutionary basis of behavior. Fixed action pattern: unlearned response to external stimuli. Environmental stimulus- doing things because of the environment, e. g. circadian rhythms over daily cycles, climate influences migration. Animal communication- visual, chemical, tactile, auditory actions, e. g. : vocalization, dances. Imprinting: juveniles imprint on first object they encounter. Habituation: learning not to respond to stimulus. Observational learning: observed behaviors of other individuals. Cognition- problem solving, reasoning, and tool use. Definition: maximum benefits or foraging at lower cost, doing whatever you can without using too much energy. Figuring out how many times one organism can drop its prey, in order to break its shell, at a certain height. Humans study only certain things in order to get a good grade in school.

Related Questions

__________ are fairly small organelles that provide a safe place within the cell to carry out certain biochemical reactions that generate harmful, highly reactive oxygen species. These chemicals are both generated and broken down in the same location.

Lysosomes

Endosomes

Peroxisomes

Nucleosomes

Biologists cannot possibly study all living species. Instead, they try to understand cell behavior by studying a select subset of them. Which of the following characteristics are useful in an organism chosen for use as a model in laboratory studies?

rapid rate of reproduction

all of the above

ability to grow under controlled conditions

amenability to genetic manipulation

By definition, prokaryotic cells do not possess __________.

ribosomes.

a nucleus.

membrane bilayers.

replication machinery.

Cell biologists employ targeted fluorescent dyes or modified fluorescent proteins in both standard fluorescence microscopy and confocal microscopy to observe specific details in the cell. Even though fluorescence permits better visualization, the resolving power is essentially the same as that of a standard light microscope because the resolving power of a microscope is limited by the __________ of light.

intensity

absorption

wavelength

filtering

Choose the phrase that best completes this sentence: Microtubules ____________ and are required to pull duplicated chromosomes to opposite poles of dividing cells.

generate contractile forces

can rapidly reorganize

are found in especially large numbers in muscle cells

are intermediate in thickness

Despite the differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, prokaryotes have proteins that are distantly related to eukaryotic actin filaments and microtubules. What is likely to be the most ancient function of the cytoskeleton?

cell division

cell motility

vesicle transport

membrane support

DNA and RNA are different types of nucleic acid polymer. Which of the following is true of DNA but not true of RNA?

It contains thymine.

It has 5'-to-3' directionality.

It is single-stranded.

It contains uracil.

Double covalent bonds are both shorter and stronger than single covalent bonds, but they also limit the geometry of the molecule because they ____________________.

prevent additional bonds from being formed with the bonded atoms.

limit the rotation of the bonded atoms.

create a new arrangement of electron shells.

change the reactivity of the bonded atoms.

Drosophila melanogaster is a/an __________. This type of animal is the most abundant of all animal species, making it an appropriate choice as an experimental model.

mammal

amphibian

bird

insect

10.

If the isotope 32S has 16 protons and 16 neutrons, how many protons, neutrons, and electrons will the isotope 35S have, respectively?

16, 19, 17

16, 19, 15

16, 19, 16

16, 20, 15

11.

Living systems are incredibly diverse in size, shape, environment, and behavior. It is estimated that there are between 10 million and 100 million different species. Despite this wide variety of organisms, it remains difficult to define what it means to say something is alive. Which of the following can be described as the smallest living unit?

cell

organelle

protein

DNA

12.

Macromolecules in the cell can often interact transiently as a result of noncovalent interactions. These weak interactions also produce stable, highly specific interactions between molecules. Which of the factors below is the most significant in determining whether the interaction will be transient or stable?

the concentration of each molecule

the size of each molecule

surface complementarity between molecules

the rate of synthesis

13.

Many of the mechanisms that cells use for maintenance and reproduction were first studied at the molecular level in bacteria. Which bacterial species had a central role in advancing the field of molecular biology?

E. coli

S. pombe

C. elegans

D. melanogaster

14.

Many types of cells have stores of lipids in their cytoplasm, usually seen as fat droplets. What is the lipid most commonly found in these droplets?

cholesterol

isoprene

triacylglycerol

palmitic acid

15.

Mitochondria contain their own genome, are able to duplicate, and actually divide on a different time line from the rest of the cell. Nevertheless, mitochondria cannot function for long when isolated from the cell because they are __________________.

anaerobes.

viruses.

parasites.

endosymbionts.

16.

Mitochondria perform cellular respiration, a process that uses oxygen, generates carbon dioxide, and produces chemical energy for the cell. Which answer below indicates a correct pairing of material âburnedâ and the form of energy produced during cellular respiration?

17.

Polar covalent bonds are formed when the electrons in the bond are not shared equally between the two nuclei. Which one of these molecules contains polar bonds?

For Discussion (2-3 paragraphs) â¢ What was the concentration of your pre-diluted NPs? â¢ Determine the effect of NPs on brine shrimp lethality. â¢ Determine the effect of NPs on cell viability. â¢ What is (are) the control(s) in this experiment? What is its purpose? â¢ Based on your data in this lab, what is a safe concentration for brine shrimp Threshold Level of Toxicity (TTL)? â¢ Often indicator species are used to study the overall health of an ecosystem. If you were to study an ecosystem containing brine shrimp, would you use it as an indicator species? Why or Why not? Explain your reasoning. â¢ What possible sources of error were present in this experiment?

Introduction

LD50 is a commonly used term to describe acute toxicity: LD stands for Lethal Dose and 50 is used because the dose could kill 50% of the animals exposed to the chemical. For LD50 tests, the animals are given specific amounts of the chemical, orally, by injection or dermally. The value is then reported along with the method of administration and the type of animal used in the test. LD50 is typically reported in milligrams or grams per kilogram of body weight of the animal. The lower the LD50 is, the higher the toxicity of the chemical would be. This information is always provided in Safety Data Sheet (SDS) of chemicals in the âtoxicity dataâ category. A similar measure, the LC50 is usually used to describe the ecological hazards of chemicals. LC stands for lethal concentration that could kill 50% of the animals after 24-96 hours. This value is always provided in Safety Data Sheet (SDS) of chemicals in the âEcological Dataâ category. In this lab, you will be measuring LC50 or LD50 of iron oxide nanoparticles using brine shrimp. Iron oxide nanoparticles are magnetic. Application of magnetic nanoparticles ranges from magnetic storage media to medical industry where they can be used for targeted drug delivery or as contrast agents in MRI. Thus, measuring environmental and biological toxicity of these nanoparticles is crucial. To test toxicity of any such reagents on small organisms, Daphnia and brine shrimps (also known as Artemia) can be used. Artimia are found in salt lakes around the world. They are important live food for aquarium fish. In this lab, you will use brine shrimp to measure toxicity of the nanoparticles. Trypan blue is a stain used to assess cell viability. It is able to diffuse through cell membranes of dead cells but is unable to permeate live cells. This stain can be used to assess cell survival 1 Fall 2017 following exposure to chemicals, nanoparticles and experimental drugs. The ratio of live: dead cells can be used as a preliminary assessment of cytotoxicity and translated to tissue viability.

Methods Part A: Serial Dilution of NP Solution 1) Label 5 test tubes as 0, 1:1, 1:10, 1:100, 1:1000 2) Add 2mL of seawater to tube 0 3) Add 2mL of specific group stock solution to tube 1:1 and add 2mL of seawater to it. 4) Transfer 1mL of stock solution to tube 1:10 and add 9mL of seawater to this tube 5) Transfer 1mL of 1:10 solution to the tube labeled as 1:100 and add 9mL of seawater to â¨this tube 6) Transfer 1mL of 1:100 solution to the test tube labeled as 1:1000 and add 9mL of â¨seawater to this tube Part B: Preparation of test environments 1) Label 5 wells of 6-well plate as control (0), 1:1, 1:10, 1:100 and 1:1000 2) Label 3 petri dishes as: control (0), 1:1 and 1:1000 â¨NOTE: Be sure to include your initials on all plates 3) Transfer 2mL of each solution from the corresponding test tube to the respective wells on your six-well plate and each petri dish Part C: Preparing specimens for the Trypan blue cell viability test 1) Transfer 2 brine shrimp into each of the pre-labeled petri dishes containing the solution of NPs and seawater (0, 1:1 & 1:1000) and set a timer for 30 minutes. 2) Transfer a single brine shrimp into the unlabeled petri dish with a drop (~50ul) of seawater and use the dissecting microscope to make observations related to the behavior and morphology of untreated brine shrimp.â¨Make observations in lab notebook of all samples Part D: Preparation of specimens for the toxicity assay 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Add 10 brine shrimp into each well in the 6 -well plate Make observations in lab notebook Using a dissecting microscope (if needed), count the number of brine shrimp in each well (alive shrimps).â¨Record your data in your notebook using the graphic below as a template. Close the plate and store it for next observation.â¨Observations must be done within 24h-96hâ¨Note: There will be times allocated and a sign up paper for observations Part E: Trypan blue viability test 2 Fall 2017 1) Label 3 glass slides to match the petri dishes prepared in Part C. 2) Transfer 1 brine shrimp from each petri dish onto the corresponding slide. â¨Make observations in your lab notebook 3) Add a drop (~60 Î¼l) of PBS on top of each specimen 4) Add 60 Î¼l of Trypan blue to your shrimp and incubate for 1-2 minutes at room â¨temperature. 5) Wick away excess liquid 6) Add 100 Î¼l PBS to sample and observe (while alive!), looking for blue cells, using the â¨dissecting scope â¨Make observations in your lab notebook 7) Label 3 microfuge tubes to align with each sample. 8) Transfer each brine shrimp from the slide into the corresponding microfuge tube 9) Add 50 Î¼l of PBS to the tube and use the mechanical disruption tool to homogenize the â¨sample for ~2 minutes until a cell suspension has been generated. 10) Load 30-50 Î¼l of your sample onto a new glass slide and add a cover slip. 11)Observe the sample on high power and use the scale below to qualitatively assess cytotoxicityâ 0-no blue 1-some blue 2-fairly blue 3-totally blue.

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Question 1 An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number? A It cannot be determined. B 19 C 45 D 64 Question 2 The square above is based on the eye color of two parents, one of whom has brown eyes and carries the recessive gene for green eyes (a). What is the probability that a biological child of these parents will have brown eyes? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100% The spleen functions are part of the _____ system. Which of the following completes the sentence above? A digestive B lymphatic C endocrine D circulatory Question 4 Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning? A Only 21% of a townâs population have expressed a desire to ban all cars. Therefore, the new proposition banning cars in the state is not likely to pass. B People who brush their teeth regularly have fewer instances of heart disease. Therefore, good dentistry can prevent heart attacks. C All soccer players who play professionally can kick well. Therefore, any future soccer player who is recruited to play professionally will be able to kick well. D All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist. Question 5 Which of the following is a possible cause of herniation of discs? A hepatitis B whiplash C plantar fasciitis D ulcer Question 6 Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system? A It regulates the voluntary control of body movements through the skeletal muscles. B It is the part of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord. C It regulates involuntary activity in the heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines. D It is thought to be the center of intelligence. Question 7 During photosynthesis, which two compounds are combined to create the output of glucose and oxygen? A Carbon dioxide and water. B Carbon dioxide and bicarbonate. C Bicarbonate and water. D Carbon dioxide and multiple alkaline substances. Question 8 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which of the following is true about the frog? A It is a member of the salamandridae family. B It is a type of amphibian. C It is a non-vertebrate. D It is closer to most tetrapods than to most newts. Question 9 Questions 8 & 9 are based on the following diagram: Which statement can be inferred about amphibians? A All amphibians are salamandridae, but not all salamandridae are amphibians. B Some amphibians are vertebrates, but not all amphibians are vertebrates. C Some salamandridae are amphibians, but not all amphibians are tetrapods. D All amphibians are vertebrates, but not all vertebrates are amphibians. Question 10 What would this diagram be useful for? A determining outcomes for potential infection B diagnosing an infectious disease C controlling the spread of disease in undeveloped countries D training nurses to detect early onset symptoms of disease Question 11 What type of bond between the complementary bases of DNA stabilizes the double helix structure? A covalent B ionic C hydrogen D nuclear Question 12 Which of the following subatomic particles are found inside of an atomâs nucleus? A electrons, neutrons, protons B neutrons, protons C electrons, protons D electrons Question 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding trophic levels? A Tertiary consumers acquire more energy content than secondary consumers. B Producers acquire less energy than primary consumers. C Secondary consumers acquire more energy than primary consumers. D Tertiary consumers acquire less energy than primary consumers. Question 14 Why does the human eye perceive a red colored dress as the color red? A The molecules of the dress do not absorb red light wavelengths. B The molecules of the dress absorb green and blue light wavelengths. C A red dress will primarily absorb red light wavelengths. D A red dress will not absorb light wavelengths from non-red colors. Question 15 In a lab experiment designed to test the rate at which plants grow under artificial light, the kind of light used is which type of variable? A dependent B independent C random D responding Question 16 Which organ system is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism, mood, and growth? A respiratory system B digestive system C endocrine system D lymphatic system Question 17 In a vacuum, why doesnât an elephant accelerate faster than a penny as it falls to the ground? A Vector components of an elephant are more complex than those of a penny. B An elephant is not a projectile, while a penny is. C They both have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. D The elephant is greater in mass but is slowed less by the effects of air resistance. Question 18 Which train described below would have the greatest momentum? A A 9500 kg train car moving at 200 mph B An 8000 kg train car moving at 215 mph C A 9300 kg train car moving at 190 mph D A 8600 kg train car mobbing at 195 mph Question 19 A scientist found that when an invasive species was introduced into a river, the population of salmon native to the region decreased. The type of correlation between these two populations could best be described as A a direct relationship. B an inverse relationship. C a direct and indirect relationship. D no decisive relationship. Question 20 The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will have what effect? A Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place. B Increase the time required for the reaction to take place. C Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. D Reduce the amount of products in the reaction. Question 21 The pharynx is part of what body system? A respiratory B muscular C lymphatic D circulatory Question 22 Which of the following is true about eukaryotic cells? A They do not contain lysosomes. B They contain one chromosome. C They do not contain a nucleus. D They contain mitochondria. Question 23 What characteristic of an element determines its specific isotope? A Number of protons. B Number of neutrons. C Number of electrons. D Number of quarks. Question 24 What is NOT true about RNA? A It contains a sugar called ribose. B Thymine is not one of its base pairings. C It is unstable in alkaline conditions. D Its sugar is more reduced than DNAâs sugar. Question 25 Which of the following scenarios would NOT give a normal distribution? A A distribution of the yearly income of families in the U.S. B The distribution of heights in a large sample of people. C The percentage of toxic wastes and pollution in the atmosphere vs. the lifespan of organisms in the location. D A curve with 97% of the population within the first two standard deviations. Question 26 In a cell, the Golgi apparatus is found in what location? A Inside the nucleus B Inside the mitochondria C In the cell wall D In the cytoplasm Question 27 Which taxonomic rank is the next-smallest after Order? A Phylum B Family C Species D Genus Question 28 In plants, ________ involves the formation of a _____? A cytokinesis, cleavage furrow B telophase, cell plate C cytokinesis, cell plate D prophase, DNA Question 29 Which base is NOT found in DNA? A guanine B cytosine C uracil D adenine Question 30 Which of the following layers of the atmosphere is the closest to space? A troposphere B stratosphere C mesosphere D thermosphere Question 31 Which is NOT one of the four basic types of tissue? A parenchyma B epithelial C nervous D connective Question 32 The stomach is _____ to the small intestine. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above? A lateral B superior C posterior D proximal Question 33 Which of the following is the atomic mass of an atom containing 42 protons, 42 electrons, and 37 neutrons? A 42 B 79 C 84 D 121 Question 34 A patient who has suffered head trauma is not able to recognize people he has met around an hour earlier but is still able to recognize people he met before the injury. He most likely has damage to the: A Medulla Oblongata B Corpus Callosum C Hippocampus D Pituitary Gland Question 35 What process is illustrated in the diagram above? A meiosis B mitosis C replication D codification Question 36 Of the following, which is not a type of chemical bond? A ionic B covalent C polar D magnetic Question 37 If the amount of hydrogen in a balloon of fixed size is doubled, what happens to the mass and density of the balloon? A The mass and density both decrease. B The mass increases, but the density decreases. C The mass decreases, but the density increases. D The mass and density both increase. Question 38 If you have 200 mL of a 60% sodium chloride solution, how much NaCl is dissolved in the solution? A 20 g B 50 g C 80 g D 120 g Question 39 How many carbon dioxide molecules are required to balance the following reaction: 4C6H12O6 + 24O2 â _CO2 + 24H2O + Energy A 4 B 8 C 16 D 24 Question 40 The graph above records the death rate of two types of male flies a certain number of days after a chemical pesticide is sprayed. What is the probability a male methuselah fly will be alive 75 days after exposure to the pesticide? A 1/2 B 1/3 C 1/4 D 1/5 Question 41 A scientist wants to write an equation using the variables X, Y, and Z. What is the proper relationship between the variables if X represents time, Y represents energy, and Z represents power? A 2XY = Z B XZ = 2Y C Z = X/Y D Z = Y/X Question 42 What type of correlation is presented between price and quality? A strong direct correlation B weak direct correlation C strong indirect correlation D no correlation Question 43 What type of cells result from mitosis? A one diploid cell B two haploid cells C two diploid cells D four haploid cells Question 44 Cheetahs, rainbow trout, and inchworms belong to the same A Kingdom B Phylum C Class D Order Question 45 The presence of which hormone would NOT cause an increase in water retention? A Renin B ANP C ADH D Aldosterone Question 46 In which part of the heart does oxygenated blood flow out of? A Right ventricle B Left ventricle C Right atrium D Left atrium Question 47 Which of the following hormones are secreted directly by the hypothalamus? A melatonin B oxytocin C dopamine D calcitonin Question 48 Which of the following terms do these diagrams NOT portray? A Active transport B Facilitated Transport C Antiporter D Ion Channel

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BIOL 100 Lecture Notes - Lecture 22: Proximate And Ultimate Causation, Circadian Rhythm, Ethology

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