BIO 204 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: The Double Helix, Dna Replication, Mortar And Pestle

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apricotbat916

15 Dec 2018

School

Stony Brook University

Department

Biology

Course

BIO 204

Professor

Marvin O' Neal

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Document Summary

Pcr allows for dna replication outside the cell. The double helix is denatured when heated by breaking the h-bonds that held the. The primers anneal with complementary sequences on the template strand. Dna polymerase (usually taq polymerase) adds complementary base pairs, starting at the 3" strand of the primer. This process is repeated to create many copies of dna. To identify gmos, gmo primers will highlight areas of the dna unique to genetically modified produce and amplify them. Activity 3c (lab 11): prepare reaction tubes without the enzyme, at 2 of your desired temperatures (0 c, 30. C, 37 c, or 50 c): there are 2 different basic ways to go about the experiment, incubate ache at different temperatures for a chosen period of time. Then add the enzyme already treated with heat to a room temperature tube: preheat the reaction mixture without the enzyme to the chosen temperature.

Related Questions

Please answer all

Why does a template-dependent DNA polymerase require a primer to initiate DNA synthesis?

	DNA polymerase require 5' phosphate to add a new nucleotide
	DNA polymerase require 3' hydroxyl group to add a new nucleotide

DNA polymerase require energy by hydrolizing the primers

Which of the following enzymes is template independent?

	Reverse transcriptase
	Klenow fragment

	DNA polymerase
	Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

RNA polymerase

The natural function of a DNA ligase enzyme is:

	Joining together DNA sequences with compatible cohesive ends from two different organisms to yield a recombinant DNA molecule
	Sealing single stranded nicks in double stranded DNA molecules

	Joining together two blunt ended fragments of DNA within a cell
	Joining together two single stranded DNA molecules

The natural function of 3' -> 5' exonuclease activity of a DNA polymerase is to:

	Remove the 5' end of the DNA strand that is being copied
	Remove damaged nucleotide from the template strand

	Remove nucleotides from the end of DNA to generate blunt ends
	Remove incorrect nucleotides from the newly synthesized DNA

Which technique is used to resolve the different sizes of DNA fragments?

	Gene cloning
	PCR

	DNA sequencing
	Gel electrophoresis

Which of the following vectors does not contain bacterial origin of replication (oriC)?

	plasmid
	cosmid

	bacterial artificial chromosome
	lambda vector

Which process of bacteriophage is not used for gene cloning?

	Concatemer formation
	Lytic cycle

	Lysogenic cycle
	viral packaging

What vector would be best suited for creating a contig of bovine (cattle) chromosome 10?

	lambda vector
	Cosmid vector

	P1 vector
	Plasmid

E. coli takes up plasmid DNA by which of the following methods?

	Transduction
	Transformation

	Conjugation
	Transfection

The following times and temperatures are an example of the steps for PCR. You can use the Figure to help you answer the following questions.

Why is the first step is carried out at 94Â°C?

	To degrade the template
	To denature the template

	To activate the polymerase
	To facilitate the primer binding

What happens in the reaction when the temperature shifts to 55Â°C during cycling?

	the DNA polymerase will carry out DNA synthesis by extending the annealed primers
	the DNA polymerase will finish DNA synthesis

	the primers anneal to the single-stranded regions of the DNA
	the primers anneal to the double-stranded regions of the DNA

During cycling, what occurs when the temperature is at 72Â°C?

	the primers anneal to the double-stranded regions of the DNA
	the DNA polymerase will carry out DNA synthesis by extending the annealed primers

	the primers anneal to the single-stranded regions of the DNA
	the DNA polymerase will finish DNA synthesis

You designed a set of primers to amplify 1 kb DNA with polymerase chain reaction. By which cycle of polymerase chain reaction, we would expect to see the first double stranded DNA with expected size?

	The end of cycle 1
	The end of cycle 2

	The end of cycle3
	The end of cycle 4

In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

Evaluation of PCR product electrophoresed on a 0.8% agarose gelshows non-specific bands. The appropriate modification for the nextPCR reaction is to

a )increase the concentration of Taq polymerase.

b) increase the number of PCR cycles.

c) decrease the template denaturation temperature.

d) reduce the concentration of primers.

In the Sanger sequencing method, chain termination is the resultof

a)misincorporation of dUTP instead of dTTP.

b)incorporation of ddGTP.

c)secondary structures in the template strand.

d)sequencing through repeats.

The purpose of EDTA in a DNA storage buffer is to

a)maintain single strands.

b)bind magnesium

c)activate DNases.

d)dissolve DNA into solution.

The thermal cycler ramp refers to the

a)degree of incline of the machine on the laboratory bench.

b)gradient between denaturation and annealing temperature.

c)programming key to set number of PCR cycles.

d)amount of time required to reach the desired temperature.

Evaluation of a blood sample indicates the presence of a clot.Corrective action to salvage this specimen for analysis would mostlikely require

a)digestion with proteinase K.

b)homogenizing the sample under UV irradiation.

c)removal of the clot with urea.

d)requesting a new sample immediately.

Incorporation of biotin into template DNA by nick-translationrequires

a)DNase.

b)ligase.

c)random hexanucleotides.

d)3 temperatures.

An isolated DNA sample is viscous, difficult to pipet, and willnot resuspend in TE buffer after rehydration at 37C for 24 hours.The most appropriate step is to

a)digest the DNA with a frequent cutting restriction enzyme.

b)re-extract the original sample with higher volumes ofreagents.

c)increase the rehydration temperature to 95C.

d)add more TE buffer.

Excess glycerol in a restriction digestion reaction resultsin

a)enzyme degradation.

b)diminished enzyme activity.

c)increased temperature required for digestion.

d)decreased enzyme buffer pH.

Primer dimers will most likely be a result of PCR when

a)3' and 5' primers are designed as 50% GC.

b)DNA template concentration is very low.

c)enhancing agents are added to the master mix.

d)template DNA is initially denatured completely.

Correct operation of a pH meter requires

a)calculation of the electrode millivolt equivalents.

b)standardization of the meter with a range of buffers.

c)documentation of absorbance and standard deviation.

d)verification of pH readings with calf thymus DNA.

The uracil DNA glycosylase pre-PCR decontamination procedurefailed. The most likely cause of the failure is the

a)enzyme solution was heated prior to PCR.

b)enzyme buffer solution was alkaline pH.

c)N-glycosidic DNA bonds cleaved after enzyme treatment.

d)PCR was performed with dTTP instead of dUTP.

The real-time PCR analysis does not show the characteristicmelting curve for the patient or control samples. The fluorimetryreadings of the PCR products indicate the appropriate concentrationof template was added to the real-time PCR reaction mix. Which ofthe following reagents was likely missing from the PCR master mixto account for this finding?

a)SYBR Green I

b)template DNA

c)DMSO

d)5X Cresol Red

Which of the following conditions favor enhanced specificity ofPCR?

a)decrease in the concentration of dNTPs

b)increase in the sodium chloride concentration

c)increase in the concentration of Taq polymerase

d)decrease in the ramp speed and temperature

Which of the following compounds is an inhibitor of Taqpolymerase?

a)magnesium

b)hemoglobin

c)DMSO

d)betaine

Which of the following compositions of gels would allow for theefficient separation of linear DNA molecules in the range of 100 to300 base pairs in length?

a)0.3% agarose

b)1.0% agarose

c)1.0% polyacrylamide

d)8.0% polyacrylamide

4.92*10^4 cpm of a random primed 32P dCTP (3000 Ci/mmol) labeledoligonucleotide probe were precipitated from a 50 uL standardreaction by TCA and 5.28*10^4 cpm is the total cpm in the sample.What is the percent incorporation of radioactivity for thislabeling reaction?

a)1.86%

b)46.50%

c)93.00%

d)98.40%

The stock solution of HCl is 1M. How much stock solution isrequired to prepare 250 mL of 50 mM HCl?

a)0.2 mL

b)5 mL

c)12.5 mL

d)125 mL

Spectroscopy measurement of a DNA sample isolated by saltextraction technique gave the following absorbance readings: A2600.4032 A280 0.3765

This sample is:

a)acceptable for molecular testing.

b)contaminated with salt.

c)contaminated with protein.

d)contaminated with high amounts of RNA.

What is the dilution factor if 50 uL of blood is diluted with950 uL of saline?

a)19

b)20

c)40

d)50

Which of the following are used to prepare a 0.9% agarosegel?

a)0.9 g agarose + 100 mL distilled water

b)0.9 g agarose + 100mL TAE

c)9 g agarose + 100mL TBE

d)90 g agarose + 100 mL buffer

The concentration of double-stranded DNA with an optical densityreading of 1.0 is

a)0.5 ug/ul

b)1.0 ug/ul

c)10 ng/ul

d)50 ng/ul

How much Tris base (MW 121.1) would be required to make 4 litersof Tris-EDTA buffer that is 15 mM Tris?

a)0.7266 grams

b)0.1211 grams

c)1.8165 grams

d)7.266 grams

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BIO 204 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: The Double Helix, Dna Replication, Mortar And Pestle

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