🏷️ LIMITED TIME OFFER: GET 20% OFF GRADE+ YEARLY SUBSCRIPTION →
Log in
HomeClass Notes1,200,000US530,000

BSC 315 Lecture Notes - Lecture 8: Intron, Polyadenylation, Phosphodiester Bond

12 views7 pages
graysardine594
23 Mar 2016
School
University of Alabama
Department
Biological Sciences
Course
BSC 315
Professor
Edwin Stephenson

For unlimited access to Class Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

Document Summary

03/23/2016 (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) In eukaryotes, where processing follows, often called the primary transcript. One of the 2 dna strands is used as template to make an rna complementary copy (cid:1) (cid:1) Each transcribed region has a beginning & end. Short regions of dna become single-stranded to allow rna polymerase to make a copy, & revert to dsdna afterward (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) Rna polymerase reads the dna template strand from 3" to 5", & makes the transcript 5" to 3". New complementary base is added to the 3" end (cid:1) Nucleotide added is a triphosphate, but cleaved to produce nucleoside monophosphate, plus free diphosphate (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) Suppose the 1st & last gs on the bottom strand are the 1st & last nucleotides of the template (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1) (cid:1)

Get access

Grade+20% off
$8 USD/m$10 USD/m
Billed $96 USD annually
Grade+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
40 Verified Answers
Class+
$8 USD/m
Billed $96 USD annually
Class+
Homework Help
Study Guides
Textbook Solutions
Class Notes
Textbook Notes
Booster Class
30 Verified Answers

Related Documents

BSC 315 Lecture Notes - Lecture 11: Cistron, Start Codon, Gene Expression
graysardine594
BSC 315 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Methionine, Start Codon, Covalent Bond
graysardine594
BSC 315 Lecture Notes - Lecture 28: Taq Polymerase, Dna Paternity Testing, Conservation Biology
graysardine594

Related Questions

Biochem:

1. Indicate whether the following describes DNA polymerase, RNApolymerase, both, or none:

a. Binds to single stranded DNA

b. Uses an RNA primer

c. Has proof-reading ability

d. Reads from 3' to 5'

e. Phosphodiester bonds are formed using rNTPs

f. Requires a DNA primer

g. Multiple types are present in eukaryotes

h. Mutiple types are present in prokaryotes

i. Is synthesized bi-directionally

j. Requires there to be a terminal sequence on DNA

k. Is part of a larger complex made up of several proteins

2. Post-translational damage causes the loss of the 2' hydoxylgroup on several adenosine nucleotides within the intron sequenceof a primary RNA transcript. What could possible happen to theresulting mature RNA sequence and consequent protein?

3. Where on the below strand of RNA would you most likely findthe following:

a. Start of transcription

b. Start of translation

c. TATA box

d. Enhancers

e. Initiator

f. Activators

g. Repressors

4. How would the following mutation in the template strand ofDNA affect the translated protein? (x=any base, / = exon/intronjunction)

5-XXXXC/CTGAAGAGGAAGXXXXGTTAGXXXXACTCAC/CTCGC-3 to5-CCTGAAGAGGAAXXXXXXXXGTTAGXXXXACTCACCTCGC-3

5. When will there be a 5'-5' linkage in RNA? When is this bondformed? Which base is commonly involved in this process? What wouldhappen if there was an inability in this enzyme to make the 5'-5'likage?

6. Consider the following strand of mRNA. What protein would beproduced if this strand was translated?

5'- CGUAUGCCCUUUACUAGUAUGUGAUACUAGUAAACC-3'

7. What would be the new protein if the following mutations weremade to the strand in 6? Label/classify each type of mutation.

a. 5'-CGUAUGCCCUUUAACUAGUAUGUGAUACUAGUUAACC-3'

b. 5'-CGUAUGCCCUUCACUAGUAUGUGAUACUAGUUAACC-3'

c. 5'- CGUAUGCCCUUUACUAGUAUUGAUACUAGUUAACC-3'

d. 5'- CGUAUGCCCUUGACUAGUAUGUGAUACUAGUAAACC-3'

e. 5'-CGUAUGCCCUUCACUAGUAUGAGUAACUAGUAACC-3'

f. 5'-CGUAUGCCCUAAACUAGUAUGUGAUACUAGUAAACC-3'

8. What are examples of two different types of point mutationsin sequences coding for hemoglobin production?

22. What is probably the single most important distinction between bacteria and eukaryotes?

a. transcription

b. the separation of the cell's genetic material from the surrounding cytoplasm

c. the existence of ribosomes

d. RNA processing in bacteria

e. antibiotics

23. Which one does NOT characterize an open reading frame (ORF)

a. Uses six reading frames during translation

b. Contains a start codon

c. Contains a stop codon

d. Its length is in multiples of 3 nucleotides

e. It should have the number of codons for a protein or on average ~250 codons in length.

24. Nested intronic genes lie within the non-coding intronic region of a larger gene, and occur in the human genome.

a. True

b. False

25. How would you characterize this statement: EF-Tu will hydrolyze GTP only if the codon:anticodon & tRNA:amino acid matchings are correct

a. Transcription; initiation steps

b. Transcription; termination steps

c. Translation: initiation steps

d. Tanslation: elongation steps

e. Spliceosome

26. Regarding the transcription unit architecture of the Escherichia coli genome, which one is FALSE?

a. Each of the 4,661 transcription units comprised an average of 1.1 modular units.

b. 3,010 transcription units (~65%) are monocistronic.

c. 1,652 transcription units (35%) contain more than one ORF (polycistronic)

d. The largest transcription unit is equivalent to 16 ORFs with numerous introns.

e. 398 transcription units (~9%) are nested within each other in opposite transcriptional orientation

27. Regarding RNA interference (RNAi), which one is FALSE?

a. It is a common and conserved mechanism in eukaryotic cells.

b. Originally discovered in bacteria and plant viruses.

c. A form of primitive immunity to protect the genome.

d. Pre microRNA (miRNA) genes have been found in introns.

e. Recent research shows that exogenous plant miRNAs in food can regulate the expression of target genes in mammals.

28. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

a. Recognize the 3’UTR

b. The genes for these enzymes fall into the family of inducible genes

c. The enzymes are imported into the nucleus

d. Covalently attaches an amino acid to the appropriate tRNA. This takes place in the cytoplasm.

e. Forms the peptide bond during protein synthesis

29. What is the process by which complementary RNAs are made from a DNA template?

a. translation

b. transcription

c. protein synthesis

d. transduction

e. transliteration

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.