ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 10: Economic Surplus, Externality, Pigovian Tax

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15 Sep 2016

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Externality: the uncompensated impact of one person"s actions on the well-being of a bystander: can be negative or positive, depending on impact on bystander. Private cost: cost paid by the consumer or producer. External cost: cost paid by people other than consumer or producer trading in the market. Social cost: cost to everyone (private cost + external cost) Social surplus: consumer surplus + producer surplus + everyone else"s surplus. Ef cient equilibrium: the price and quantity that maxima social surplus. Ef cient quantity: quantity that maximizes social surplus. Self-interested buyers and sellers neglect the external costs or bene ts of their actions, so the market outcome is not ef cient. Solutions to externality problems: private solutions. Transaction costs: all the costs necessary to reach an agreement. The coase theorem: if transaction costs are low and property rights are clearly de ned, private bargains will ensure that the market equilibrium is ef cient even when there are externalities.

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home / study / business / economics / questions and answers / Question 1 Which Of The Following Is The Best Example ... Question: Question 1 Which of the following is the best exam... Bookmark Question 1 Which of the following is the best example of a positive externality? A car company lays off 10,000 employees in order to cut costs. An individual drives a large SUV, which increases the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. An individual smokes in a restaurant, which bothers other patrons. A child is vaccinated against a disease, which reduces the probability that other children will catch the disease. 4 points Question 2 As a result of a negative externality, the market equilibrium quantity is too ______ compared to the socially optimal quantity. As a result of a positive externality, the market equilibrium quantity is too ______ compared to the socially optimal quantity. high; high. low; low. high; low. low; high. 4 points Question 3 Based on the diagram below, the deadweight loss area associated with the market equilibrium equals: Week06_graph1.jpg $10 $50 $80 $1,000 4 points Question 4 A firm's accounting profit is given by total revenue: less implicit costs. less explicit costs. less economic profit. less implicit and explicit costs. 4 points Question 5 Suppose an activity has a private cost equal to $30 and a private benefit equal to $30. The associated social cost equals $35 and the social benefit equals $30. Which of the following statements is true about this activity? There is a negative externality associated with this activity but not a positive externality. There is a positive externality associated with this activity but not a negative externality. There is both a positive and a negative externality associated with this activity. There is neither a positive nor a negative externality associated with this activity. 4 points Question 6 The Coase Theorem implies that: the efficient level of an externality is generally zero. private individuals living in market economies should not be concerned with externalities. government intervention is not always needed to arrive at the efficient level of an externality. government laws are unnecessary. 4 points Question 7 An industry in which a small number of large firms sell products that are either close or perfect substitutes is: perfectly competitive. monopolistically competitive. an oligopoly. a monopoly. 4 points Question 8 When a negative externality is present in a market: a tax can increase the level of economic surplus. the social benefits are greater than the private benefits. there is generally too little of the good produced by private markets. the government should ensure that there are zero external costs associated in all markets. 4 points Question 9 In the presence of a positive externality, the government can arrive at the socially optimal output level by: paying producers a subsidy equal to the amount of social benefits associated with the activity. charging producers a tax equal to the amount of social costs associated with the activity. paying producers a subsidy equal to the amount of external benefits associated with the activity. charging producers a tax equal to the amount of external costs associated with the activity. 4 points Question 10 The tragedy of the commons is that: too few individuals have access to high quality healthcare. common people overconsume public goods. the quality of life for lower income people is generally lower than that of higher income people. a resource with no price tends to be exploited until its marginal benefit falls to zero. 4 points Question 11 One potential remedy to the tragedy of the commons is to: never allow a single individual to consume more than one percent of the common resource. criminalize the usage of common resources. allow individuals to use a common resource as long as they receive some benefit from doing so. place a common resource under private ownership. 4 points Question 12 As a result of a positional externality: contestants have a tendency to invest in a series of mutually offsetting investments in performance enhancement. there is generally an underinvestment in performance enhancement. the market price of performance enhancement materials is too high. the quality of performance in competitive situations is lower than the socially optimal level. 4 points Question 13 Which of the following statements is true regarding health insurance? Economics shows that all health related procedures should be free to individuals because the health of an individual is priceless. Total economic surplus would be larger if individuals faced an incentive to only use services when the benefit exceeds their costs. Health maintenance organizations provide an incentive for doctors to prescribe expensive nonessential services. First dollar insurance coverage has likely had very little to do with rising healthcare expenditures since World War II. 4 points Question 14 A strategy that yields a higher payoff no matter what the other players in the game choose is known as a: prisoner's strategy. dominated strategy. dominant strategy. Nash strategy.

17. Which of the following is a determinant of supply?

A. Tastes and preferences

B. Price of a complementary good

C. Consumer income

D. Technology

18. A market is in equilibrium:

A. provided there is no surplus of the product

B. at all prices above that shown by the intersection of the supply and demand curves

C. if the amount producers want to sell is equal to the amount consumers want to buy

D. whenever the demand curve is downsloping and the supply curve is upsloping.

19. If the market price is above the equilibrium price:

A. A shortage will occur and producers will produce more and lower prices

B. A surplus will occur and producers will produce less and lower prices

C. A surplus will result and consumers will bid prices up

D. Producers will make extremely high profits

20. The market system automatically corrects a surplus condition in a competitive market by:

A. Raising the price of the commodity in question while increasing the quantity demanded

B. Raising the price of the commodity in question while decreasing the quantity demanded

C. Reducing the price of the commodity in question while increasing the quantity demanded

D. Reducing the price of the commodity in question while decreasing the quantity demanded

21. The price elasticity of demand measures:

A. buyer responsiveness to price changes.

B. the extent to which demand curve shifts as incomes change.

C. the slope of the demand curve.

D. how far business executives can stretch their fixed costs

22. The elasticity of demand for a product is likely to be greater:

A. if the product is a necessity, rather than a luxury good.

B. the greater the amount of time over which buyers adjust to a price change

C. the smaller the proportion of one's income spent on the product.

D. the smaller the number of substitute products available.

23. Market failure is said to occur whenever:

A. private markets do not allocate resources in the most economically desirable way

B. prices rise

C. some consumers who want a good do not obtain it because the price is higher than they are willing to pay

D. government intervenes in the functioning of private markets.

24. A negative externality or spillover cost occurs when:

A. firms fail to achieve allocative efficiency.

B. firms fail to achieve productive efficiency.

C. the price of the good exceeds the marginal cost of producing it.

D. the total cost of producing a good exceeds the costs borne by the producer

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_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

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ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 10: Economic Surplus, Externality, Pigovian Tax

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