Question

If an agent-employee injures a third party duringthe course of employment, under the doctrine of respon- deatsuperior, the employer may be held liable for the employee’s actioneven though the employer did not authorize the action and was noteven aware of it. Is it fair to hold the employer liable in thissituation? Would it be more equitable if the employee alone washeld liable for his or her tortious (legally wrongful) actions tothird parties, even when the actions were committed within thescope of employment? Pease include citations.