Detailed solutions please. I've tried this question 20+ timesand still cannot get the right answer!
Solve the ivp with equation cos(x + y)dy = sin (x + y)dx and y(0) = 2 pi. Enter your answer as an implicitly defined function in the form F(x, y ) = 0 =0 Working this problem I needed the hint that cos(z)/sin(z) + cos(z) can be re-written as 1/2 cos(z)-sin(z)/sin(z) + cos(z) + 1/2 cos(z) + sin(z)/sin(z)+cos(z) I believe that if you are doing it correctly, you will too. it was hard to make this machine gradable. do not simplify your answer after you integrate. Do not multiply both sides by 2 to get rid of that 1/2