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taupelizard284Lv1

28 Sep 2019

What factors influence a firm's competitive strategies? How does global economic competition affect the price elasticity of demand in the domestic market and decisions related to the strategy a firm uses to compete? Why do most economists oppose trade restrictions? Who have been the winners and losers as a result of the North American Free Trade Agreement?

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Joshua StredderLv10

28 Sep 2019

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1) Workers in one country are more productive than workers in another country because

-they have more complementary factors to work with.

-they have fewer complementary factors to work with.

-they are better motivated and paid.

2) Conservative economists would like to help younger workers get work experience by

-setting up a government jobs program.

-raising the minimum wage rate.

-lowering the minimum wage rate.

-passing a law requiring employers to hire teenagers ahead of older workers who are equally qualified.

3) The Supreme Court's "rule of reason"

-has been applied since the time of the Civil War.

-has been applied since 1945.

-was applied from 1911 to 1945.

-has been applied since 1970.

4) Which is the smallest American labor union?

-United Auto Workers

-The International Brotherhood of Teamsters

-The National Education Association

-The Service Employees International Union

5) The Change to Win coalition recently mounted a national recruiting drive, primarily targeting _______.

-All of these jobs were targeted

-cashiers

-janitors

-dishwashers

6) The demand for labor is

-determined by the supply of labor.

-determined by the wage rate.

-its marginal revenue product schedule.

-higher at lower wage rates.

7) Economic rent is associated with

-low wages.

-agricultural workers.

-factory workers.

-high wages.

8) Which statement is true?

-The most important influence on a firm's demand for a factor of production is the demand for the final product.

-All of the statements are true.

-A firm will keep hiring more and more of a resource up to the point at which its MRP is equal to its price.

-If the MRP of the last worker hired is higher than the wage rate, the firm has hired too few workers.

9) Amelia Earhart's nominal wages rose from $40,000 to $50,000, while the CPI rose by 20%. Her real wages

-rose.

-fell.

-cannot be calculated with the available information.

-stayed the same.

10) Which of the following is NOT an example of a vertical merger?

-The merger of two computer companies

-The merger of an automobile company and a tire company

-The merger of a computer company and a microelectronics chip company

-The merger of a shoe producer and a leather producer

11) The demand for a resource rises as

-its productivity falls and prices of substitutable resources falls.

-its productivity rises and the prices of substitutable resources falls.

-its productivity rises and the relative prices of substitutable resources rises.

-its productivity falls and the relative prices of substitutable resources falls.

12) Interlocking directorates were expressly forbidden under the

-neither the Sherman Act nor the Clayton Act.

-both the Sherman and Clayton Acts.

-Clayton Act.

-Sherman Act.

13) A firm's demand for labor is

-its MRP schedule.

-determined by the going wage rate.

-shaped mainly by the supply of labor.

14) If unions are successful in negotiating a wage higher than the market equilibrium wage, and also guarantee employers that they can hire as many labor hours as they desire per week at the union wage,

-all workers who join the union will be guaranteed a job.

-the quantity of labor demanded will exceed the quantity supplied at the union wage.

-the quantity of labor demanded will equal the quantity supplied at the union wage.

-the quantity of labor demanded will fall short of the quantity supplied at the union wage.

15) Which of the following offers the best example of derived demand?

-An increase in the demand for cars causes an increase in the demand for gasoline.

-An increase in the demand for movie tickets causes an increase in the demand for popcorn.

-A decline in the demand for cars causes an increase in the demand for bus rides.

-An increase in demand for movie tickets causes an increase in the demand for movie theatre workers.

16) A "bill of rights" for union members and a provision of union election procedures were two of the main provisions of the _____ Act.

-Landrum-Griffin

-Sherman Antitrust

-National Labor Relations

-Taft-Hartley

17) The decision to bring suit in an antitrust case is usually made by

-the Supreme Court or a lower federal court.

-the injured party.

-the Department of Commerce.

-the Department of Justice.

18) At its peak labor union membership was about _____% of the labor force.

-35

-45

-15

-25

19) Combinations in restraint of trade are prohibited by

-the Sherman Act.

-the Federal Trade Commission Act.

-The Clayton Act.

20) Which statement is true?

-American manufacturing wages are the highest in the world.

-American manufacturing wage rates are the lowest of any industrial country.

-Our manufacturing wage rates are the second highest in the world.

-None of the statements are true. MICROECONOMIC

lavenderelephant611

Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

1. Terms of Payment found in international business contracts include:

a. CFR (cost and freight, foreign port)

b. Consignment

c. Documentary Drafts

d. all of the above

e. (b) and (c) above

2. Joint Ventures have the

a. advantage of utilizing the expertise of a local partner.

b. disadvantage of not being able to make all the decisions because control is shared.

c. advantage of being able to share the profits.

d. all of the above

e. (a) and (b) above

4. Businesses are using global or regional brands for the following reason(s):

a. private brands do not offer any meaningful competition.

b. economies of scale usually result in reduced costs.

c. satellite and cable TV are widely available.

d. all of the above

e. (b) and (c) above

6. E-Commerce Potential is

a) is higher for Jamaica than for Argentina.

b) is an index based on mobile phones, internet hosts, and number of PCs.

c) is a composite ranking of three indices.

d) (a) and (b) above

e) (a) and (c) above

7. Generally, industrial products require __________ adaptation than consumer products to meet the demands of the world market.

a) greater

b) less

c) the same amount of

d) only slightly less

e) only slightly more

13. Although global sourcing can be beneficial it may have some disadvantages such as

a. added costs

b. exchange rate fluctuations affecting prices

c. quality control

d. all of the above

e. (b) and (c) above

14. In staffing

a. an ethnocentric policy is always the most effective if qualified personnel are available.

b. a polycentric policy is always the least effective even when qualified personnel are available.

c. using third country personnel would be considered most frequently with regiocentric or geocentric policies.

d. all of the above

e. (a) and (c) above

16. In the most recent 40 years, union membership around the world has been in decline, in part because:

a) There are more women in the workforce.

b) The unions have been successful and priced themselves out of the market.

c) Employers have made efforts to keep business union-free.

d) (a) and (c) above only

e) All of the above.

17. When a firm has less than a majority interest in a subsidiary it can still have control by having

a) a management contract

b) the right to control the technology

c) the right to vote its shares

d) all of the above

e) (a) and (b) above only

18. The Female Wage Gap

a. is the percent of Male Wages earned by Female Employees.

b. younger females have less of a gap in all countries.

c. is the smallest for older females in Korea.

d. all of the above

e. (a) and (c) above

19. Income earned abroad by U.S. citizens:

a) incurs a tax liability in the US with some adjustments.

b) incurs tax liability only on the portions earned in the U.S.

c) incurs no tax liability.

d) incurs a tax liability in the US on all income earned with no adjustments for

taxes paid in other countries.

e) none of the above

20. The international structural stages model suggests that a typical evolutional path for an international company's structure would be:

a) from international division to geographical area division to worldwide product division.

b) from international division to worldwide product division to geographical area division.

c) from geographical area division to worldwide product division to global matrix.

d) from functional division to horizontal company to virtual corporation.

e) from international division to worldwide product division to global matrix.

21. Competitive advantage is acquired by developing competencies that

a. are common to all competitors so the firm can compete.

b. create value for customers even if the price is higher than customers want to pay.

c. are difficult to imitate.

d. all of the above

e. (a) and (c) above only

22. In their measurement and disclosure for accounting systems, less developed countries tend toward:

A.	transparency and conservatism.

B.	transparency and optimism.

C.	secrecy and optimism.

D.	secrecy and conservatism.

23. Export Marketing plans should be specific about:

A. The markets to be developed

B. The marketing strategy for servicing them.

C. the tactics required to make the strategy operational

D.	cash flow projections.
E.	A, B, and C.

24. Factors that are involved in the operation of a manufacturing system include:

A. Plant location

B. Plant layout

C. Material handling

D. Human asset

E. all of the above

26. A middle ground between an ad campaign that is standardized worldwide and an entirely local ad campaign is called a:

A.	hybrid advertising campaign.
B.	programmed-management approach.
C.	computerized-management approach.
D.	shared-management approach.
	E. none of the above.

27. In selecting a foreign market, a screening process is used by a firm. In regard to this process, answer the following:

a) The importance of the priority order of the steps in the screening process.

b) The reasons for participating in either a trade show or in a trade mission.(Select one)

c) The reasons for using cluster analysis in assessing global markets.

d) The importance of regional or ethnic subcultures in evaluating competitive forces.

28. Select any four of the following, explain each of them, and discuss the role each of them plays in international business activities:

a) Summarize any one of the videos from week six or eight (either one of them not both) and discuss the role the information in this video plays in international business activities.

b) Foreign (Free) Trade Zones

c) Countertrade

d) Explain why a manager with a global assignment needs a mentor in the host country and a mentor in the home country.

e) Quality and quantity of the labor force in a country

f) Labor Mobility and Guest Workers

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