The Federal Reserve Board is conducting an experiment wherein on the first day of each of a set of successive months money is injected into the economy as follows: $1 million the first month, $2 million the second month, 3 million the third month, $1 million the fourth month, 2 million the fifth month, 3 million the sixth month, and so on. Is the injection of money into the economy on the first day of a month a non-random variable, a random variable, or a constant? Do you expect that the response of the price level to these changes is a nonrandom variable, a random variable, or a constant? Fully explain your reasoning.
The Federal Reserve Board is conducting an experiment wherein on the first day of each of a set of successive months money is injected into the economy as follows: $1 million the first month, $2 million the second month, 3 million the third month, $1 million the fourth month, 2 million the fifth month, 3 million the sixth month, and so on. Is the injection of money into the economy on the first day of a month a non-random variable, a random variable, or a constant? Do you expect that the response of the price level to these changes is a nonrandom variable, a random variable, or a constant? Fully explain your reasoning.
For unlimited access to Homework Help, a Homework+ subscription is required.
Related textbook solutions
Related questions
TRUE / FALSE
1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,
investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.
2. True False When C + Ig = GDP in a private closed economy, S = Ig and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.
3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.
4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.
5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.
6. True False The M2 money supply may be larger or smaller than the M1 money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.
7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.
8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.
9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.
10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:
A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.
B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.
C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.
D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.
12. The multiplier effect indicates that:
A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.
B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.
C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.
D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.
13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?
- There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.
B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.
C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.
D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.
14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:
A. 18 percent.
B. 24 percent.
C. 12 percent.
D. 6 percent.
15.
Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:
A. $400.
B. $300.
C. $200.
D. $100.
16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?
A. a $10 billion tax cut
B. a $10 billion increase in government spending
C. a $10 billion tax increase
D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending
17.
Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:
A. private economy.
B. private open economy.
C. mixed closed economy.
D. mixed open economy.
18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:
A. counted as part of M1.
B. counted as part of M2, but not M1.
C. only counted as part of M1 if it was deposited into a checking account.
D. not counted as part of the money supply.
19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:
A. the multiplier to decrease.
B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.
C. the country's net exports to rise.
D. the country's net exports to fall.
20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:
A. level of bank credit.
B. level of income.
C. interest rate.
D. price level.
21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:
A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.
B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.
C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.
D. 1/MPS.
22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?
A. a change in the price level
B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar
C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level
D. an increase in personal income tax rate
23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:
A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.
B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.
C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full
employment.
D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.
24. The aggregate supply curve:
A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.
B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.
C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.
D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.
25.
Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P1, then:
A. aggregate demand is AD2.
B. the equilibrium output level is Q3.
C. the equilibrium output level is Q2.
D. producers will supply output level Q1
26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:
A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.
B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.
C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.
D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.
27.
Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?
A. T4
B. T3
C. T2
D. T1
28.
| Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C1 to C2 might be caused by a(n):
|
29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:
A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.
B. is decreased.
C. is increased.
D. may either increase or decrease.
30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:
A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.
B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.
C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.
D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.
31.
Refer to the above information. Money supply M1 for this economy is:
A. $ 60.
B. $ 70.
C. $ 130.
D. $ 140.
32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?
- From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.
B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.
C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.
D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.
33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?
- holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks
B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government
C. controlling the supply of money
D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks
34. In a fractional reserve banking system:
A. bank panics cannot occur.
B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.
C. banks can create money through the lending process.
D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.
| 35. |
|
36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:
Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?
A. $ 3,000
B. $ 24,000
C. $ 6,000
D. $ 16,000
37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:
Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:
A. $0.
B. $1,000.
C. $5,000.
D. $30,000.
38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?
A. open market operations
B. changes in banking laws
C. changes in tax rates
D. changes in government spending
39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:
A. interest rates will rise.
B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.
C. bond prices will fall.
D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.
40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:
At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:
A. $500.
B. $480.
C. $460.
D. $440.
41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:
A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.
B. diversifiable risk and time preference.
C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.
D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.
42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:
A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.
B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.
C. state chartered commercial banks only.
D. federally chartered commercial banks only.
43.
|
Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE1to AE2 would:
|
44. The discount rate is the interest:
A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.
B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.
C. yield on long-term government bonds.
D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.
45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?
A. present value
B. future value
C. compound interest
D. real rate of interest
46. The aggregate demand curve:
A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.
B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.
C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.
D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.
47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:
A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.
B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.
C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.
D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.
48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:
A. of the same risk level to have the same price.
B. to have the same expected rate of return.
C. to have the same beta.
D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.
| 49. |
|
50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:
A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.
B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.
C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.
D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.
END OF THE EXAM
Question 1
Which compensation method helps to explain the large difference between the salaries of top-level managers and mid-level managers in a firm?
| A. | Tournaments | |
| B. | New blood | |
| C. | Piece rate | |
| D. | Backloaded compensation |
3 points
Question 2
Please consider the information provided under Question 19 in Chapter 3 (page 54). Based on the stated information, the optimal number of bees kept if the externality is ignored by Yung is 5,000. Is the socially optimal number of bees higher or lower than 5,000?
| A. | We do not have enough information to answer this question | |
| B. | Same | |
| C. | Lower | |
| D. | Higher |
3 points
Question 3
Which of the following factors contribute to the existence of firms?
| A. | All of these factors contribute to firm existence | |
| B. | Risks associated with specialization | |
| C. | Incomplete contracts | |
| D. | Willingness of some people to take on risk in exchange for residual income |
3 points
Question 4
Public goods are often subject to free-rider problems because these goods are:
| A. | Non-rival and non-excludable | |
| B. | Rival and non-excludable | |
| C. | Non-rival and excludable | |
| D. | Rival and excludable |
3 points
Question 5
Which of the following is the most efficient mechanism for allocating scarce goods?
| A. | Government allocation system | |
| B. | First-come-first-served system | |
| C. | Market system | |
| D. | Random allocation system |
3 points
Question 6
Many years ago, most of the major Hollywood movie studios also owned chains of local movie theaters across the US. Today, most of the local movie theaters are owned by other companies. What has happened to the degree of integration in the movie industry over time?
| A. | Less horizontally integrated | |
| B. | Less vertically integrated | |
| C. | More horizontally integrated | |
| D. | More vertically integrated |
3 points
Question 7
Your firm produces replacement parts for the nuclear submarines operated by the US Navy. Which one of Porter's Five Forces will be most prominent in determining your strategies and profitability?
| A. | Bargaining Power of Suppliers | |
| B. | Bargaining Power of Customers | |
| C. | Threat of New Entrants | |
| D. | Threat of Substitutes |
3 points
Question 8
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
| A. | The market mechanism for allocating resources is most efficient due to the incentives it creates. | |
| B. | Markets are always the most efficient way to allocate goods, even if the market is not perfectly competitive. | |
| C. | The random allocation mechanism provides no incentives at all. | |
| D. | The government allocation mechanism provides no incentive for the economy to grow. |
3 points
Question 9
Suppose a firm's cost structure exhibits economies of scope. Which of the following actions is compatible with this cost structure?
| A. | Diversify into other product lines | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| B. | Focus on core competencies and reduce production | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| C. | Focus on core competencies and maintain constant production | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| D. | Focus on core competencies and expand production Question 10 Please refer to Table 8.3 on page 132 in the book. Suppose we change the payoffs in the "low price, low price" cell to 0, 25 from 0, 0. Does this change the Nash equilibrium for the game, and is the game still a Prisoner's Dilemma?
3 points Question 11 Which of the following statements about restricting entry to markets is NOT true?
3 points Question 12 Your firm earns $2 million per quarter in total revenue, and your accounting profits are $100,000 per quarter. You do not charge the firm for the use of an old building that you own because it is 50 years old and fully depreciated. However, another firm has offered you $200,000 per quarter to use the facility, and this is the market rental rate for similar facilities. In this case, we know that your:
3 points Question 13 Please refer to Question 13 in Chapter 1 (page 17). What is the marginal cost of reducing global warming by 0.017 degrees?
3 points Question 14 In Chapter 6, Boyes focuses on negative externalities such as the various types of pollution. However, as we discussed during our online session, we can also observe positive externalities in which external benefits are generated for people. Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive externality?
3 points Question 15 Common property resources are:
3 points Question 16 The free-rider problem arises in markets for common property resources.
3 points Question 17 Firms that set their product price below the actual cost of production may be engaging in:
3 points Question 18 Under a cap-and-trade mechanism to control air pollution, what happens to the price of pollution rights if the supply of righs is reduced (i.e., the supply of rights is reduced)?
|