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Security A has a beta of .99, security B has a beta of 1.2, and security C has a beta of -1.0. This information indicates that

security A has the highest degree of market risk.
security B has 20% more systematic risk than the market.
security C has the highest degree of market risk.
security C would be the best investment if a strong bull market is expected.

When the stock market has bottomed out and is beginning to recover, the best portfolio to own is the one with a beta of (Points : 1)

0.0.
+0.5.
+1.5.
+2.0.

Portfolios located on the efficient frontier may not be part of the feasible set. (Points : 1)

True
False

A coefficient of determination of 0.6 means that 40% of the variation in a security's return is related to factors other than the security's relationship to the market. (Points : 1)

True
False

Small company stocks are yielding 15.7% while the U.S. Treasury bill has a 4.3% yield and a bank savings account is yielding 3.8%. What is the risk premium on small company stocks

The risk-free rate of return is 2% while the market rate of return is 12%. Parson Company has a historical beta of .85. Today, the beta for Delta Company was adjusted to reflect internal changes in the structure of the company. The new beta is 1.38. What is the amount of the change in the expected rate of return for Delta Company based on this revision to beta


I and II only
III and IV only
II, III and IV only
I, II, and IV only

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Sixta Kovacek
Sixta KovacekLv2
28 Sep 2019

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Hi, giving points to help me with these questions :


1.The correlation coefficient between well diversified portfolio A (50 different assets) and well diversified portfolio B (50 different assets) is -.7.

A new portfolio of A and B together will be less risky than a portfolio that is composed of either just the assets in Portfolio A or just the assets in portfolio B.

AnswerTrue or False





2.Plastics, Inc. will pay an annual dividend of $1.85 next year. The company just announced that future dividends will be increasing by 2.25 percent annually. How much are you willing to pay for one share of this stock if you require a 16 percent return?


True or False



3.Assume that common stock values are consistent with the following model:

E(Rx) = rf + Bx{E(Rm)- rf)}

E(Rx) = required return on asset x.

rf = risk free rate of interest

Bx = Beta of security x.

E(Rm) = expected return on market portfolio.

E(Rm)- rf = market risk premium

4.If the risk free rate of interest increases but the required risk premium for security x remains the same; the expected return on security x be less than the required return on security x until the price of security x falls.

Answer

True or False



5.Which one of the following is the best example of unsystematic risk?

A.Inflation exceeding market expectations

Answer A.Inflation exceeding market expectations

B.A Warehouse fire

C.Decrease in the value of the dollar

D.Decrease in value of the dollar

E.Increase in Consumer spending

1. If we are able to eliminate all of the unsystematic or diversifiable risk in a portfolio then, what is the result?

a.

a risk-free portfolio
b.
a portfolio that has an expected return of zero
c.

a portfolio that contains only systematic risk

2. A portfolio consists 20% of a risk-free asset and 80% of a stock. The risk-free return is 4%. The stock has an expected return of 15% and a standard deviation of 30%. What’s the expected return of the portfolio?

a.
9.5%
b.
15.0%
c.
12.8%

d.
2%


3. The risk-free rate is 5% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 13%. A stock has a beta of 1.5, what is its expected return?


a.
12%
b.
19.5%
c.

17%

4. For what value of the correlation coefficient for the returns of a pair of stocks will the benefits of diversification the largest?


a.

1.0
b.

-1.0
c.

0.0
d.

0.5


5. Which of the following is an example of systematic risk?
a.
IBM posts lower than expected earnings.
b.
The overall stock market becomes more risky due to super fasting trading algorithms.
c.

Intel announces record earnings.

6. According to the CAPM (capital asset pricing model), the security market line is a straight line. The intercept of this line should be equal to

a.
zero
b.
the expected risk premium on the market portfolio
c.
the expected return on the market portfolio
d.
the risk-free rate


7. A portfolio has 40% invested in Asset 1, 50% invested in Asset 2 and 10% invested in Asset 3. Asset 1 has a beta of 1.2, Asset 2 has a beta of 0.8 and Asset 3 has a beta of 1.8, what’s the beta of the portfolio?

a.
0.80
b.
1.06
c.
1.27


8. Suppose you can borrow and lend at the risk free-rate of 3%. Which of the following four risky portfolios has the best return relative to risk. (Hint: Calculate Sharpe Ratios the ratio of risk premium to standard deviation for each portfolio)

a.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 15% and an expected return of 12%
b.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 12% and an expected return of 9%
c.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 25% and an expected return of 18%
d.
portfolio with a standard deviation of 19% and an expected return of 15%


9. Which statements are TRUE regarding risk and return?

Statement I:
Diversification is the process of removing systematic risk from a portfolio.
Statement II:
In general, the greater the risk, the greater the return required by an investor.
Statement III:
Investors should focus on real returns if they are concerned about the purchasing power of their wealth.


a.
Statements II and III only
b.
Statement I only
c.
Statements I and III only
d.
Statements I and II only

10. The beta of the risk-free asset is:
a.

1.0
b.

0.5
c.

0.0
d.

-1.0

1. Which of the following is true?
The corporation model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
The discounted dividend model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
For the discounted dividend model, a firm's weighted average cost of capital is used as the discount rate.
For the corporate valuation model, a firm's cost of equity is used as the discount rate.
Question 2.2. Which of the following is false?
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be smaller than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs < g).
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be greater than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs > g).
From the constant growth model, if the constant dividend growth rate is equal to zero, a firm's share price is equal to the constant dividend divided by the cost of equity (i.e., g=0).
If a company's constant dividend growth rate is negative, the formula for the constant growth model cannot be applied.
Question 3.3. From the discussion of a firm's capital budgeting problem in chapter 11, which of the following is false? (Points : 3.5)
The net present value method (NPV) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
The internal rate of return method (IRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the internal rate of return.
The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of cpaital.
For mutually exclusive projects, if there is a conflict between NPV and IRR, the project with the highest IRR is chosen.
The IRR is independent of a firm's weighted average cost of capital.
Question 4.4. Which of the following is true? (
As a firm's dividend payout ratio increases, the firm's WACC decreases.
The WACC only represents the "hurdle rate" for a typical project with average risk. Therefore, the project's WACC should be adjusted to reflect the project's risk.
Firms with riskier projects generally have a lower WACC.
Holding all else constant, an increase in the target debt ratio tends to lower the WACC.
Question 5.5. Which of the following is false?
If interest rates rise, the price of the bond will rise and its YTM (yield to maturity) will fall.
Short-term bond prices are less sensitive than long-term bond prices to interest rate changes.
Companies are not likely to call bonds unless interest rates have declined significantly. Thus, the call provision is valuable to firms but detrimental to long term investors.
On balance, bonds that have a sinking fund are regarded as being safer than those without such a provision.
Question 6.6. Which of the following is not true? (Points : 3.5)
According to SML (security market line), the risk premium on a high-beta stock would increase more than that on a low-beta stock.
If beta < 1.0, the security is less risky than average.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), in general, a company’s expected return will double when its beta doubles.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), if a portfolio of real world stocks has a beta of zero, the required rate of return for the portfolio is equal to the risk-free rate.
Question 7.7. P&G Industries bonds have a maturity of 15 years with a $1,000 face value, have an 8% semiannual coupon, are callable in 10 years at $1,125, and currently sell at a price of $1,105. What is their nominal annual yield to call?
6.87%.
7.37%.
11.05%.
8.32%.
Question 8.8. Which of the following is not the flaw (weakness) of the discounted payback method? (Points : 3.5)
It does not tells us by how much the project should increase shareholder wealth, or by how much a project yields over the cost of capital; it merely tells us when we recover our investment.
It ignores cash flows occurring after the payback period.
It ignores the time value of money, that is, dollars received in different years are all given the same weight.
Question 9.9. Jermey Lin has $52,500 invested a stock with a beta of 0.80 and another $47,500 invested in a stock with a beta of 3.2. If these are the only two investments in his portfolio, what is his portfolio's beta?
1.56.
1.82.
2.00.
1.94
Question 10.10. According to CAPM, if the required rate of the return of Stock A obtained from the security market line (SML) is less than the expected rate of the return of stock A from the capital market transaction, then stock A is
fairly priced.
undervalued.
overvalued.
Question 11.11. Determine the yield-to-call (to nearest 0.1 of a percent) of an LTV bond with a 12 percent coupon, that pays interest annually. The bond can be called in 5 years, has a call premium of $114, and is currently selling for $912.50. The bond has a face value of $1,000.
14.58%.
13.92%.
16.34%.
12.17%.
Question 12.12. Project M costs $1,000, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 11%. What is the project's NPV? (Points : 3.5)
$259.57.
$221.86.
$195.23.
$257.35.
Question 13.13. Project J costs $1,025, its expected cash inflows are $425 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's IRR?
12.58%.
10.82%.
11.76%.
9.64%.
Question 14.14. Project X costs $6,750, its expected cash inflows are $1250 per year for 10 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's payback?(Note, the regular payback is asked in this question, not the discounted payback.) (Points : 3.5)
5.40 years.
10 years.
4.58 years.
6.12 years.
Question 15.15. Project S costs $800, its expected cash inflows are $350 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 7%. What is the project's MIRR?
13.97%.
12.04%.
14.93%.
9.15%.
Question 16.16. Project Y costs $650, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 5 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's discounted payback?
1.47 years.
1.24 years.
1.62 years.
1.15 years.
1. Which of the following is true?
The corporation model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
The discounted dividend model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
For the discounted dividend model, a firm's weighted average cost of capital is used as the discount rate.
For the corporate valuation model, a firm's cost of equity is used as the discount rate.
Question 2.2. Which of the following is false?
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be smaller than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs < g).
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be greater than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs > g).
From the constant growth model, if the constant dividend growth rate is equal to zero, a firm's share price is equal to the constant dividend divided by the cost of equity (i.e., g=0).
If a company's constant dividend growth rate is negative, the formula for the constant growth model cannot be applied.
Question 3.3. From the discussion of a firm's capital budgeting problem in chapter 11, which of the following is false?
The net present value method (NPV) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
The internal rate of return method (IRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the internal rate of return.
The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of cpaital.
For mutually exclusive projects, if there is a conflict between NPV and IRR, the project with the highest IRR is chosen.
The IRR is independent of a firm's weighted average cost of capital.
Question 4.4. Which of the following is true? (Points : 3.5)
As a firm's dividend payout ratio increases, the firm's WACC decreases.
The WACC only represents the "hurdle rate" for a typical project with average risk. Therefore, the project's WACC should be adjusted to reflect the project's risk.
Firms with riskier projects generally have a lower WACC.
Holding all else constant, an increase in the target debt ratio tends to lower the WACC.
Question 5.5. Which of the following is false? (Points : 3.5)
If interest rates rise, the price of the bond will rise and its YTM (yield to maturity) will fall.
Short-term bond prices are less sensitive than long-term bond prices to interest rate changes.
Companies are not likely to call bonds unless interest rates have declined significantly. Thus, the call provision is valuable to firms but detrimental to long term investors.
On balance, bonds that have a sinking fund are regarded as being safer than those without such a provision.
Question 6.6. Which of the following is not true? (Points : 3.5)
According to SML (security market line), the risk premium on a high-beta stock would increase more than that on a low-beta stock.
If beta < 1.0, the security is less risky than average.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), in general, a company’s expected return will double when its beta doubles.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), if a portfolio of real world stocks has a beta of zero, the required rate of return for the portfolio is equal to the risk-free rate.
Question 7.7. P&G Industries bonds have a maturity of 15 years with a $1,000 face value, have an 8% semiannual coupon, are callable in 10 years at $1,125, and currently sell at a price of $1,105. What is their nominal annual yield to call? (Points : 3.5)
6.87%.
7.37%.
11.05%.
8.32%.
Question 8.8. Which of the following is not the flaw (weakness) of the discounted payback method? (Points : 3.5)
It does not tells us by how much the project should increase shareholder wealth, or by how much a project yields over the cost of capital; it merely tells us when we recover our investment.
It ignores cash flows occurring after the payback period.
It ignores the time value of money, that is, dollars received in different years are all given the same weight.
Question 9.9. Jermey Lin has $52,500 invested a stock with a beta of 0.80 and another $47,500 invested in a stock with a beta of 3.2. If these are the only two investments in his portfolio, what is his portfolio's beta? (Points : 3.5)
1.56.
1.82.
2.00.
1.94
Question 10.10. According to CAPM, if the required rate of the return of Stock A obtained from the security market line (SML) is less than the expected rate of the return of stock A from the capital market transaction, then stock A is (
fairly priced.
undervalued.
overvalued.
Question 11.11. Determine the yield-to-call (to nearest 0.1 of a percent) of an LTV bond with a 12 percent coupon, that pays interest annually. The bond can be called in 5 years, has a call premium of $114, and is currently selling for $912.50. The bond has a face value of $1,000. (Points : 3.5)
14.58%.
13.92%.
16.34%.
12.17%.
Question 12.12. Project M costs $1,000, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 11%. What is the project's NPV?
$259.57.
$221.86.
$195.23.
$257.35.
Question 13.13. Project J costs $1,025, its expected cash inflows are $425 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's IRR? (
12.58%.
10.82%.
11.76%.
9.64%.
Question 14.14. Project X costs $6,750, its expected cash inflows are $1250 per year for 10 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's payback?(Note, the regular payback is asked in this question, not the discounted payback.) (Points : 3.5)
5.40 years.
10 years.
4.58 years.
6.12 years.
Question 15.15. Project S costs $800, its expected cash inflows are $350 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 7%. What is the project's MIRR? (
13.97%.
12.04%.
14.93%.
9.15%.
Question 16.16. Project Y costs $650, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 5 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's discounted payback?
1.47 years.
1.24 years.
1.62 years.
1.15 years.

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