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Question 1. (8 points) Read Chapter 8 of A Random Walk Down Walk Street. According to Malkiel,
how many stocks should you hold in your portfolio (at least) to properly reduce risk? What has happened
to correlations between markets over the last several decades? Why does this matter to investors?

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Beverley Smith
Beverley SmithLv2
28 Sep 2019

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Fundamentals of Investing, 13th Ed., Smart/Gitman/Joehnk, Chapter 10, Problem 1CP:

Max and Veronica Shuman, along with their teenage sons, Terry and Thomas, live in Portland, Oregon. Max is a sales rep for a major medical firm, and Veronica is a personnnel officer at a local bank. Together they earn an annual income of around $100,000. Max has just learned that his recently departed rich uncle has named him in his will to the tune of some $250,000 after taxes. Needless to say, the family is elated. Max intends to spend $50,000 of his inheritance on a number of long-overdue family itmes (like some badly needed remodeling of their kitchen and family room, the down payment on a new Porsche Boxster, and braces to correct Tom's overbite). Max wants to invest the remaining $200,000 in various types of fixed-income securities.

Max and Veronica have no unusual income requirements or health problems. Their only investment objectives are that they want to achieve some capital appreciation, and tehy want to keep their funds fully invested for at least 20 years. They would rather not have to rely on their investments as a source of current income but want to maintain some liquidity in their portfolio just in case.

a. Describe the type of bond investment program you think the Shuman family should follow. In answering this question, give appropriate consideration to both return and risk factors.

b. List several types of bonds that you would recommend for their portfolio and briefly indicate why you would recommed each.

c. Using a recent issue of the Wall Street Journal, Barron's, or an online source, construct a $200,000 bond portfolio for the Shuman family. Use real securities and select any bonds (or notes) you like, given teh following ground rules:
1. The porfolio must include at least one Treasury, one agency, and one corporate bond; also, in total, the portfolio must hold at least five but no more than eight bonds or notes.
2. No more thatn 5% of the portfolio can be in short-term U.S. Treasury bills (but note that if you hold a T-bill, that limits your selections to just seven other notes/bonds).
3. Ignore all transaction costs (i.e., invest the full $200,000) and assume all securities have par values of $1,000 (although they can be trading in the market at something other than par).
4. Use the latest available quotes to determine how many bonds/notes/bills you can buy.

d. Prepare a schedule listing all the securities in your recommended portfolio. Use a form like the one shown below and include the information it calls for on each security in the portfolio.

e. In one brief paragraph, note the key investment attributes of your recommended portfolio and the investment objectives you hope to achieve with it.

Question 1

Financial investments are made in efficient markets. The existence of these markets suggests that:

a.

Investors cannot earn superior returns.
b.

Investors cannot expect to outperform the market consistently.
c.

Security prices are random.
d.

Bearing additional risk will not increase return.

2 points

Question 2

A new issue of corporate securities sold to the general public must be:

a.

Registered with the SEC.
b.

Initially sold through brokers.
c.

Offered initially to existing stockholders.

2 points

Question 3

Money market mutual funds invest in which of the following?

Commercial paper.

Repurchase agreements.

Corporate bonds.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

All of the choices are correct.

3 points

Question 4

FDIC insures:

a.

U.S. Treasury bills.
b.

Money market mutual funds.
c.

Saving accounts.
d.

Repurchase agreements.

3 points

Question 5

Which of the following does not have default risk?

a.

Money market mutual funds.
b.

Commercial paper.
c.

Negotiable certificates of deposit.
d.

U.S. Treasury bills.

2 points

Question 6

The spread is the:

a.

Difference between the bid and ask prices.
b.

Commission charged by the broker.
c.

Difference between the purchase and sale prices.
d.

Difference between the commissions charged by full-service and discount brokers.

3 points

Question 7

Securities regulations protect investors by:

a.

Requiring disclosures of information by firms.
b.

Stopping investors from buying overpriced stock.
c.

Reducing competition among brokers.
d.

Establishing commission schedules.

3 points

Question 8

If a stock is bought on margin:

a.

The full amount of the cost of the investment is borrowed.
b.

The commissions on the investment are increased.
c.

The cost of the investment is reduced.
d.

The interest on the borrowed funds is set by the SEC.

3 points

Question 9

Sarbanes-Oxley, the latest important securities law:

a.

Reduces potential conflicts between securities analysts and investment bankers.
b.

Legalizes the sale of securities by investment brokers.
c.

Requires corporate boards of directors to own stock.
d.

Mandates that security analysts file their recommendations with the SEC.

2 points

Question 10

Which of the following are true about the present value of a dollar?

It increases as the interest rate increases.

It decreases as the interest rate increases.

It increases as the time period increases.

It decreases as the time period increases.

a.

1 and 3.
b.

1 and 4.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2 and 4.

3 points

Question 11

Time value concepts may not be used to determine:

a.

The present value of an annuity.
b.

The margin required on a stock purchase.
c.

The future value of $100 deposited in a bank.
d.

The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 12

What is the marginal tax rate?

a.

The tax rate paid on investment gains from items purchased on margin.
b.

The tax rate paid on an additional dollar of taxable income.
c.

The margin required on a stock purchase.
d.

The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 13

Examples of capital gains include sales of which of the following?

IRA accounts.

Stocks sold for a profit.

Real estate sold for a profit.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

All of these choices.

3 points

Question 14

With a Roth IRA, the individual:

a.

May deduct annual contributions.
b.

Earns tax-free income.
c.

Defers taxes.
d.

Avoids estate taxes.

2 points

Question 15

Sources of unsystematic risk include which of the following?

A firms financing decisions.

A firms operations.

Fluctuating market prices.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

All of these choices.

2 points

Question 16

For diversification to reduce risk:

a.

The returns on the individual securities should be highly correlated.
b.

The prices of the stocks should be stable.
c.

The returns on the individual securities should be negatively correlated.
d.

One firm should offer dividends and the other should offer capital gains.

2 points

Question 17

Which of the following are true about beta coefficients?

They are a measure of systematic risk.

They relate the return on an individual security to the return on the market.

They measure the variability of an assets return.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

All of these choices.

3 points

Question 18

Which of the following does an efficient portfolio do?

Maximizes risk for a given return.

Minimizes risk for a given return.

Maximizes return for a given level of risk.

Minimizes return for a given level of risk.

a.

1 and 3.
b.

1 and 4.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2 and 4.

3 points

Question 19

The security market line does not:

a.

Indicate the relationship between risk and return.
b.

Relate the market return and beta to a stock's return.
c.

Identify the optimal portfolio for the investor.
d.

Use beta coefficients as a measure of risk.

3 points

Question 20

Mutual funds ____ realized capital gains and income (for example, dividends received):

a.

Retain.
b.

Reinvest.
c.

Distribute.
d.

Distribute or reinvest.

2 points

Question 21

An index fund limits its portfolio to:

a.

High quality securities.
b.

Stocks that respond to changes in the consumer price index.
c.

Stocks included in an aggregate measure of stock prices.
d.

Stocks of firms in a particular industry.

2 points

Question 22

Mutual funds with beta coefficients greater than 1.0:

a.

Have outperformed the market.
b.

Have underperformed the market.
c.

Have more systematic risk than the market.
d.

Have less systematic risk than the market.

3 points

Question 23

Which of the following will tend to cause a stock's price to fall?

The firms beta declines.

The firms beta increases.

The risk-free rate declines.

The risk-free rate increases.

a.

1 and 3.
b.

1 and 4.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2 and 4.

2 points

Question 24

The use of P/E ratios to select stocks suggests that:

a.

High P/E stocks should be purchased.
b.

Low P/E ratio stocks are overvalued.
c.

A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic low P/E.
d.

A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic high P/E.

2 points

Question 25

What does the efficient market hypothesis require?

Financial markets to be competitive.

Prices to adjust rapidly.

Prices of undervalued securities to fall.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

All of these choices.

3 points

Question 26

Which of the following does the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis suggest?

Inside information will not lead to superior investment results.

Inside information will lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will not lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will lead to superior investment results.

a.

1 and 3.
b.

1 and 4.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2 and 4.

3 points

Question 27

Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?

a.

NASDAQ market index.
b.

Dow Jones industrial average.
c.

S&P 500 stock index.
d.

AMEX market value index.

3 points

Question 28

What is dollar-cost averaging?

a.

Periodically buying a round lot of stock.
b.

Periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock.
c.

A means to increase the average cost basis.
d.

A means to ensure a positive return.

2 points

Question 29

Stock dividends cause:

a.

The price of a share of stock to rise.
b.

The price of a share of stock to fall.
c.

The value of the firm to rise.
d.

The value of the firm to fall.

2 points

Question 30

Which of the following occurs when a stock has a two-for-one split?

a.

The price of the stock doubles.
b.

The firm's assets increase.
c.

The firm's liabilities decrease.
d.

The par value of the stock is reduced.

3 points

Question 31

Dividend reinvestment plans offer which of the following advantages?

Deferment of federal income taxes.

A convenient means to accumulate shares.

Dollar-cost averaging.

a.

1 and 2.
b.

1 and 3.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2.

3 points

Question 32

When the Federal Reserve seeks to expand the money supply, it:

a.

Sells securities.
b.

Buy securities.
c.

Runs a deficit.
d.

Runs a surplus.

2 points

Question 33

The sum of cash, currency, and demand deposits is:

a.

M1.
b.

M2.
c.

M3.
d.

M4.

3 points

Question 34

If the Federal Reserve lowers the target federal funds rate:

a.

The discount rate rises.
b.

Liquidity in the banking system is increased.
c.

Security prices fall.
d.

Required reserves are also decreased.

3 points

Question 35

The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should:

a.

Buy bonds.
b.

Anticipate higher interest rates.
c.

Avoid real estate investments.
d.

Sell stocks of gold companies.

3 points

Question 36

The current ratio is unaffected by:

a.

Using cash to pay a dividend.
b.

The collection of an account receivable.
c.

Selling inventory for a profit.
d.

Selling bonds and using the funds to finance inventory.

2 points

Question 37

Which of the following are true as the debt ratio increases?

Fewer assets are debt financed.

More assets are debt financed.

The ratio of debt equity increases.

The ratio of debt equity decreases.

a.

1 and 3.
b.

1 and 4.
c.

2 and 3.
d.

2 and 4.

2 points

Question 38

The technical approach suggests that future stock prices are forecasted by:

a.

Past stock rates.
b.

Financial ratios.
c.

Accounting statements.
d.

Monetary policy.

2 points

Question 39

The Dogs of the Dow strategy:

a.

Forecasts the direction of the Dow Jones averages.
b.

Suggests buying the Dow stocks with the highest dividend yields.
c.

Outperforms the S&P 500.
d.

Suggests buying the lowest-priced Dow stocks.

3 points

Question 40

Behavioral finance combines aspects from which two fields in an attempt to identify human traits that affect investment decisions?

a.

Accounting and finance.
b.

Finance and psychology.
c.

Physics and finance.
d.

Finance and marketing.

QUESTION 1

In the lease versus buy decision, leasing is often preferable

A.

because the lessee owns the property at the end of the least term.

B.

because lease obligations do not affect the firm's risk as seen by investors.

C.

because, generally, no down payment is required, and there are no indirect interest costs.

D.

because it has no effect on the firm's ability to borrow to make other investments.

E.

because the lessee may have greater flexibility in abandoning the project in which the leased property is used than if the lessee bought and owned the asset.

2 points

QUESTION 2

The tighter the probability distribution of its expected future returns, the greater the risk of a given investment as measured by its standard deviation.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 3

Ratio analysis involves analyzing financial statements in order to appraise a firm's financial position and strength.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

If the returns on two stocks are perfectly positively correlated (i.e., the correlation coefficient is +1.0) and these stocks have identical standard deviations, an equally weighted portfolio of the two stocks will have a standard deviation that is less than that of the individual stocks.

B.

If a stock has a negative beta, its expected return must be negative.

C.

A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have less market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5.

D.

According to the CAPM, stocks with higher standard deviations of returns must also have higher expected returns.

E.

A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have more market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5, assuming that the stock's beta was correctly calculated and is stable.

2 points

QUESTION 5

Many leases written today combine the features of operating and financial leases. Such leases are often called "combination leases."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 6

The owner of a convertible bond owns, in effect, both a bond and a call option.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 7

If a firm raises capital by selling new bonds, it is called the "issuing firm," and the coupon rate is generally set equal to the required rate on bonds of equal risk.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

A.

Warrants can sometimes be detached and traded separately from the debt with which they were issued, but this is unusual.

B.

One important difference between warrants and convertibles is that convertibles bring in additional funds when they are converted, but exercising warrants does not bring in any additional funds.

C.

The coupon rate on convertible debt is normally set below the coupon rate that would be set on otherwise similar straight debt even though investing in convertibles is more risky than investing in straight debt.

D.

Warrants have an option feature but convertibles do not.

E.

The value of a warrant to buy a safe, stable stock should exceed the value of a warrant to buy a risky, volatile stock, other things held constant.

2 points

QUESTION 9

Because of improvements in forecasting techniques, estimating the cash flows associated with a project has become the easiest step in the capital budgeting process.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 10

The form of organization for a business is not an important issue, as this decision has very little effect on the income and wealth of the firm's owners.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 11

Two important issues in corporate governance are (1) the rules that cover the board's ability to fire the CEO and (2) the rules that cover the CEO's ability to remove members of the board.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 12

The "preferred" feature of preferred stock means that it normally will provide a higher expected return than will common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 13

If an investment project would make use of land which the firm currently owns, the project should be charged with the opportunity cost of the land.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 14

Operating leases help to shift the risk of obsolescence from the user to the lessor.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 15

Starting to invest early for retirement increases the benefits of compound interest.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 16

Market risk refers to the tendency of a stock to move with the general stock market. A stock with above-average market risk will tend to be more volatile than an average stock, and its beta will be greater than 1.0.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 17

Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 18

An option is a contract that gives its holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price within a specified period of time.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 19

The optimal distribution policy strikes that balance between current dividends and capital gains that maximizes the firm's stock price.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 20

If the current price of a stock is below the strike price, then an option to buy the stock is worthless and will have a zero value.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 21

The desire for floating-rate bonds, and consequently their increased usage, arose out of the experience of the early 1980s, when inflation pushed interest rates up to very high levels and thus caused sharp declines in the prices of outstanding bonds.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 22

Taylor Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept?

A.

Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%.

B.

Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%.

C.

None of the projects should be accepted.

D.

All of the projects should be accepted.

E.

Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.

2 points

QUESTION 23

To finance the construction of a new plant, Pietersen Corporation must raise an additional $10,000,000 of equity capital through the sale of common stock. The firm currently has an EPS of $5.40 and a P/E ratio of 10, with 1,200,000 shares outstanding. If the firm wants its ex-rights price to be $50, what subscription price must it set on the new shares?

A.

$39.28

B.

$50.00

C.

$29.55

D.

$41.80

E.

$33.78

2 points

QUESTION 24

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming positive interest rates and holding other things constant?

A.

A 30-year, $150,000 amortized mortgage will have larger monthly payments than an otherwise similar 20-year mortgage.

B.

A bank loan's nominal interest rate will always be equal to or less than its effective annual rate.

C.

The present value of a 5-year, $250 annuity due will be lower than the PV of a similar ordinary annuity.

D.

If an investment pays 10% interest, compounded annually, its effective annual rate will be less than 10%.

E.

Banks A and B offer the same nominal annual rate of interest, but A pays interest quarterly and B pays semiannually. Deposits in Bank B will provide the higher future value if you leave your funds on deposit.

2 points

QUESTION 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in inventories is reported as a use of cash.

B.

In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts receivable is reported as a use of cash.

C.

In the statement of cash flows, depreciation charges are reported as a use of cash.

D.

In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts payable is reported as a use of cash.

E.

Dividends do not show up in the statement of cash flows because dividends are considered to be a financing activity, not an operating activity.

2 points

QUESTION 26

The term "additional funds needed (AFN)" is generally defined as follows:

A.

A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each balance sheet account is held constant.

B.

Funds that are obtained automatically from routine business transactions.

C.

Funds that a firm must raise externally from non-spontaneous sources, i.e., by borrowing or by selling new stock to support operations.

D.

The amount of internally generated cash in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to acquire the new assets needed to support growth.

E.

The amount of assets required per dollar of sales.

2 points

QUESTION 27

The cash flows associated with common stock are more difficult to estimate than those related to bonds because stock has a residual claim against the company versus a contractual obligation for a bond.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 28

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV.

B.

Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.

C.

Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not.

D.

An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase.

E.

An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality.

2 points

QUESTION 29

Time lines can be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 30

A warrant is an option, and as such it cannot be used as a "sweetener."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 31

BLW Corporation is considering the terms to be set on the options it plans to issue to its executives. Which of the following actions would decrease the value of the options, other things held constant?

A.

The life of the option is increased, i.e., the time until it expires is lengthened.

B.

The exercise price of the option is increased.

C.

The Federal Reserve takes actions that increase the risk-free rate.

D.

BLW's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance).

E.

BLW's stock price suddenly increases.

2 points

QUESTION 32

Convertible debentures for Kulik Corporation were issued at their $1,000 par value in 2012. At any time prior to maturity on February 1, 2032, a debenture holder can exchange a bond for 25 shares of common stock. What is the conversion price, Pc?

A.

$48.62

B.

$40.00

C.

$42.00

D.

$46.31

E.

$44.10

2 points

QUESTION 33

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $0.75 at the end of the year. The required rate of return is rs = 10.5%, and the expected constant growth rate is g = 6.4%. What is the stock's current price?

A.

$18.29

B.

$17.39

C.

$19.22

D.

$18.75

E.

$17.84

2 points

QUESTION 34

If a firm's goal is to maximize its earnings per share, this is the best way to maximize the price of the common stock and thus shareholders' wealth.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 35

The common stock of Southern Airlines currently sells for $33, and its 8% convertible debentures (issued at par, or $1,000) sell for $850. Each debenture can be converted into 25 shares of common stock at any time before 2025. What is the conversion value of the bond?

A.

$783.75

B.

$744.56

C.

$825.00

D.

$866.25

E.

$707.33

2 points

QUESTION 36

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

If interest rates increase, the price of a 10-year coupon bond will decline by a greater percentage than the price of a 10-year zero coupon bond.

B.

If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its annual coupon, then the bond will trade at a premium.

C.

If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.

D.

If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.

E.

If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, its price will continue to decline until it reaches its par value at maturity.

2 points

QUESTION 37

A proxy is a document giving one party the authority to act for another party, including the power to vote shares of common stock. Proxies can be important tools relating to control of firms.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 38

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.

Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.

B.

If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV.

C.

If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV.

D.

If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.

E.

If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV.

2 points

QUESTION 39

A firm's AFN must come from external sources. Typical sources include short-term bank loans, long-term bonds, preferred stock, and common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 40

Which of the following could explain why a business might choose to operate as a corporation rather than as a sole proprietorship or a partnership?

A.

Less of a corporation's income is generally subjected to taxes than would be true if the firm were a partnership.

B.

Corporate shareholders escape liability for the firm's debts, but this factor may be offset by the tax disadvantages of the corporate form of organization.

C.

Corporations generally find it relatively difficult to raise large amounts of capital.

D.

Corporations generally face relatively few regulations.

E.

Corporate investors are exposed to unlimited liability.

2 points

QUESTION 41

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 42

Amram Company's current ratio is 1.9. Considered alone, which of the following actions would reduce the company's current ratio?

A.

Use cash to reduce accruals.

B.

Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce long-term debt.

C.

Use cash to reduce accounts payable.

D.

Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce accruals.

E.

Use cash to reduce short-term notes payable.

2 points

QUESTION 43

ESOPs were originally designed to help improve worker productivity, but today they are also used to help prevent hostile takeovers.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 44

High current and quick ratios always indicate that a firm is managing its liquidity position well.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 45

A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC).

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 46

"Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 47

Heavy use of off-balance sheet lease financing will tend to

A.

affect a company's cash flows but not its degree of risk.

B.

make a company appear less risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will appear lower.

C.

make a company appear more risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will be increased.

D.

affect the lessee's cash flows but only due to tax effects.

E.

have no effect on either cash flows or risk because the cash flows are already reflected in the income statement.

2 points

QUESTION 48

As a firm's sales grow, its current assets also tend to increase. For instance, as sales increase, the firm's inventories generally increase, and purchases of inventories result in more accounts payable. Thus, spontaneous liabilities that reduce AFN arise from transactions brought on by sales increases.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 49

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal total liabilities and equity.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 50

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, balance sheet, statement of cash flows, and statement of stockholders' equity.

True

False

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