BIOL 1122 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Botulism, Yolk, Elisa

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3 May 2017

School

Northeastern University

Department

Biology

Course

BIOL 1122

Professor

Evan Hunter

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Document Summary

Required enriched media under reduced oxygen tension (microaerophilic and facultatively anaerobic) Sheep blood agar - environment for differentiation based on hemolytic properties. 3 types of hemolysis produced on bap due to production or lack of hemolysins (streptolysins) Alpha ( )- partial hemolysis - greening - viridans group. Beta ( ) - complete hemolysis - clear - the beta strep group. Significant human pathogens - s. pyogenes, s. pneumoniae, enterococcus faecalis. Separated based on cell wall carbohydrate or lipotechoic acid antigens. A-v (lancefield grouping system named after rebecca lancefield who discovered some. Most pathogenic to man - belong to a serological grouping (gabhs - group a beta. Some part of natural flora of many individuals. Streptoccocis pyogenes = -strep group a = gabhs. Most gabhs produce 2 types of hemolysins. When microbiologist streaks suspected gabhs, blood agar is stabbed at. 2 parallel locations to detect streptolysin o activities.

Related Questions

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

bronzegoldfish853

The epiglottis acts as a

voice box.

filter for microorganisms and debris.

cover over the larynx.

producer of mucus.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 1)

Collectively, the nose, oral cavity, pharynx, epiglottis, and larynx make up the

nasopharynx.

oropharynx.

laryngopharynx.

upper respiratory system.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 1)

The cilia present on cells of the lower respiratory system function by:

trapping microorganisms and foreign debris.

propelling microorganisms and particles out.

preventing colonization by potential pathogens.

all of the above.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 2)

The most common causative agent of a swollen and painful oropharynx is

Streptococcus pyogenes.

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Rhinovirus.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 3)

Infections associated with cystic fibrosis are due to inflammation of the:

bronchi.

bronchioles.

lungs.

alveoli.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 3)

A physician sends a nasal washing for viral culture. This specimen is

unacceptable because it is contaminated with upper respiratory flora.

acceptable as long as it contains epithelial cells.

unacceptable if it is for the detection of influenza or respiratory syncytial viruses.

acceptable if it has a thick consistency and is yellow or green in color.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 4)

A patient is unable to produce adequate sputum for routine, acid-fast, and fungal cultures. The physician may attempt to obtain a/an

induced sputum.

transtracheal aspirate.

bronchoalveolar lavage.

pleural fluid.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 4)

9. Two throat swabs are received from a 6-year-old female with orders for a rapid screen for group A Streptococcus. One swab is tested using the group A Streptococcus rapid screen, and it is negative. The second swab is used to inoculate

a. sheep blood agar.

b. chocolate agar.

c. no culture is necessary.

d. a and b.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 6)

Which of the following disease states requires the addition of selective and/or differential medium to ensure recovery of potential pathogens from the respiratory system?

Pertussis

Cystic fibrosis

Laryngitis

a and b

all of the above

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 6)

11. A throat culture provides the following results:

Moderate growth of alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, optochin-susceptible, gram-positive diplococci

Heavy growth of alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, optochin-resistant, gram-positive cocci

Heavy growth of gamma-hemolytic, oxidase-positive, glucose- and maltoseÂ-positive, gramÂ diplococci

You would report

moderate growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of Neisseria meningitidis and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

ANSWER:

(Level 3, Objective 7)

Yeast colonies in a sputum culture are considered significant when they

are present.

comprise 25% of the organisms present.

comprise 50% of the organisms present.

comprise 75% of the organisms present.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 7)

13. An 8-year-old male presents with a red and sore throat. The rapid group A Streptococcus screen is negative, and a sheep blood agar is inoculated. At 24 hours, there are no beta-hemolytic colonies present and moderate growth of normal upper respiratory flora. At 48 hours, the same culture results are present. Which of the following statements does not explain these results?

a. His sore throat is due to Haemophilus influenzae, and it will not grow on blood agar.

b. The culture was taken very early in the infection.

c. The patient received treatment prior to specimen collection.

d. The causative agent is not bacterial.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 8)

17. A quantitative bronchial alveolar lavage culture requires:

1. sheep blood agar.

2. chocolate agar.

3. 0.01 mL pipette.

4. 0.001 mL pipette.

a. 1 and 3

b. 1, 3, and 4

c. 2, 3, and 4

d. 2 and 4

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 9)

18. A bronchial washing is plated to a BCYE. This agar should be examined under a laminar flow hood due to the potential for recovery of Legionella pneumophila and

a. Bordetella pertussis.

Francisella tularensis.

mould.

Pneumocystis jiroveci.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 9)

20. A physician submits a sputum with a culture request for Legionella. Select the growth medium that should be used to cultivate this organism.

a. 7H10

b. TCBS

c. BCSA

d. BCYE

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 6)

coppertoad665

BIOL 1122 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Botulism, Yolk, Elisa

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