desiboy327

Why did the British not bother to proclaim (impose) these acts before 1650 ( in the days of “salutary neglect” as official imperial colonial policy) ?

What were the economic political and administrative reasons that led the British royal government to impose these laws on American colonists?

In your opinion why did Pontiac and his followers assume that defeating the white enemies required more an inward spiritual and cultural struggle on their parts than open armed rebellion?

Why did the British royal government only authorized English ships sailors to carry goods traded within the empire? Which trading nation was targeted?