BIOL 1011 : Study Guide Micro

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15 Mar 2019

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Chapter 10 questions: streptococcus pyogenes produces a protein that is present in the pili and allows the bacterial cells to adhere firmly to the pharyngeal tissue. Gram-negative, oxidase- positive cocci were cultured from her cerebrospinal fluid. This condition is called: aschoff bodies, schick syndrome, waterhous-friderichson syndrome, adrenal imbalance syndrome. It is caused by a group a streptococcus. It is also known as necrotizing faciitis because it travels along the fascia. C. it causes death in high number of cases. D. it is considered a common complication of strep throat. C. potatoes salad d. rice e. all of the above: an organisms commonly present in air and soil that has been a concern with cooked rice that has been standing at room temperature. On april 29, he had eaten raw oysters. On may 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg.

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1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

bronzegoldfish853

The epiglottis acts as a

voice box.

filter for microorganisms and debris.

cover over the larynx.

producer of mucus.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 1)

Collectively, the nose, oral cavity, pharynx, epiglottis, and larynx make up the

nasopharynx.

oropharynx.

laryngopharynx.

upper respiratory system.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 1)

The cilia present on cells of the lower respiratory system function by:

trapping microorganisms and foreign debris.

propelling microorganisms and particles out.

preventing colonization by potential pathogens.

all of the above.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 2)

The most common causative agent of a swollen and painful oropharynx is

Streptococcus pyogenes.

Arcanobacterium haemolyticum.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Rhinovirus.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 3)

Infections associated with cystic fibrosis are due to inflammation of the:

bronchi.

bronchioles.

lungs.

alveoli.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 3)

A physician sends a nasal washing for viral culture. This specimen is

unacceptable because it is contaminated with upper respiratory flora.

acceptable as long as it contains epithelial cells.

unacceptable if it is for the detection of influenza or respiratory syncytial viruses.

acceptable if it has a thick consistency and is yellow or green in color.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 4)

A patient is unable to produce adequate sputum for routine, acid-fast, and fungal cultures. The physician may attempt to obtain a/an

induced sputum.

transtracheal aspirate.

bronchoalveolar lavage.

pleural fluid.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 4)

9. Two throat swabs are received from a 6-year-old female with orders for a rapid screen for group A Streptococcus. One swab is tested using the group A Streptococcus rapid screen, and it is negative. The second swab is used to inoculate

a. sheep blood agar.

b. chocolate agar.

c. no culture is necessary.

d. a and b.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 6)

Which of the following disease states requires the addition of selective and/or differential medium to ensure recovery of potential pathogens from the respiratory system?

Pertussis

Cystic fibrosis

Laryngitis

a and b

all of the above

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 6)

11. A throat culture provides the following results:

Moderate growth of alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, optochin-susceptible, gram-positive diplococci

Heavy growth of alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, optochin-resistant, gram-positive cocci

Heavy growth of gamma-hemolytic, oxidase-positive, glucose- and maltoseÂ-positive, gramÂ diplococci

You would report

moderate growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of Neisseria meningitidis and heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

heavy growth of normal upper respiratory flora.

ANSWER:

(Level 3, Objective 7)

Yeast colonies in a sputum culture are considered significant when they

are present.

comprise 25% of the organisms present.

comprise 50% of the organisms present.

comprise 75% of the organisms present.

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 7)

13. An 8-year-old male presents with a red and sore throat. The rapid group A Streptococcus screen is negative, and a sheep blood agar is inoculated. At 24 hours, there are no beta-hemolytic colonies present and moderate growth of normal upper respiratory flora. At 48 hours, the same culture results are present. Which of the following statements does not explain these results?

a. His sore throat is due to Haemophilus influenzae, and it will not grow on blood agar.

b. The culture was taken very early in the infection.

c. The patient received treatment prior to specimen collection.

d. The causative agent is not bacterial.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 8)

17. A quantitative bronchial alveolar lavage culture requires:

1. sheep blood agar.

2. chocolate agar.

3. 0.01 mL pipette.

4. 0.001 mL pipette.

a. 1 and 3

b. 1, 3, and 4

c. 2, 3, and 4

d. 2 and 4

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 9)

18. A bronchial washing is plated to a BCYE. This agar should be examined under a laminar flow hood due to the potential for recovery of Legionella pneumophila and

a. Bordetella pertussis.

Francisella tularensis.

mould.

Pneumocystis jiroveci.

ANSWER:

(Level 2, Objective 9)

20. A physician submits a sputum with a culture request for Legionella. Select the growth medium that should be used to cultivate this organism.

a. 7H10

b. TCBS

c. BCSA

d. BCYE

ANSWER:

(Level 1, Objective 6)

coppertoad665

Highlight or bold the answer you select for multiple choice or type in your answer in the blank space provided.

1. Which of the following is not true of the nervous system?

Consists of central and peripheral systems

(b) Central nervous system is composed of brain and spinal cord

(d) Meninges are membranes that cover brain and spinal cord

(e) Normally free of microbes

2. Which of the following is a common cause of meningitis in nonimmunized young children?

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) None of the above

3. A complication of infection with this organism (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) can occur if the organism becomes widely distributed in the body, leading to endotoxin shock and death. The organism is:

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

4. Which of the following bacterial meningitis diseases currently is the most common type in the U.S., with increased incidences in infants and in the 15- to 24-year-old age group, and has three types or strains of the infectious microbe?

(a) Haemophilus meningitis

(b) Listeriosis

(d) Meningococcal meningitis

(e) a and c

5. Before development of a vaccine against this microbe, the disease it caused accounted for two-thirds of bacterial meningitis cases during the first year of life but is still the number one leading cause of mental retardation in patients who survive serious disease due to permanent central nervous system disorders. What is the microorganism?

(a) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(b) Haemophilus influenzae type A

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

6. Which of the following bacteria that may cause meningitis is Gram-positive and therefore does not cause endotoxin shock in infected individuals?

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Neisseria meningitidis

(d) Haemophilus influenzae type B

(e) None of these

7. Avid swimmers and hot tub enthusiasts sometimes acquire an opportunistic infection caused by Naegleria fowleri that results in a meningoencephalitis. This organism is a (an):

(a) Protist

(b) Helminth

(d) Amoeba

(e) a and d

8. Which of the following in NOT true about listeriosis?

(a) Foodborne transmission is the most common source of infection.

(b) It is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis today.

(d) It is sometimes acquired as a zoonosis.

(e) Individuals with impaired immune systems are highly susceptible to this disease.

9. Viral meningitis is usually always fatal if untreated, unlike bacterial meningitis, which is always self-limiting and nonfatal. True or false?

10. Which of the following is acid-fast and causes Hansen's disease?

(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(b) Clostridium tetani

(d) Haemophilus influenzae

(e) Mycobacterium leprae

11. An immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) has replaced the older test for the presence of inclusions in neurons (Negri bodies) for the detection of infections caused by:

(a) Neisseria meningitidis

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Haemophilus influenza

12. The viruses that cause encephalitis are most likely to be:

(a) Togaviruses

(b) Enteroviruses

(d) Rabies virus

(e) Hepatitis viruses

13. What do the following viral encephalitis diseases have in common: eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis, Venezuelan equine encephalitis, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile fever?

(a) They are all caused by the same virus.

(b) They are have the horse as a common intermediate host.

(d) Birds are never involved in the life cycle of the viruses that cause these diseases.

(e) Both a and d.

14. The only bacterium known to damage peripheral nerves is:

(a) Naegleria fowleri

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Neisseria meningitidis

(e) Haemophilus influenzae

15. All of the following are true about Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, EXCEPT:

(a) They are spore-forming rods.

(b) They are part of the normal bowel microflora of horses, cattle, and humans.

(d) Their toxin elicits muscle stiffness, spasms, and paralysis in the victim.

(e) They require oxygen to survive.

16. A vaccine that was developed in 1933 has proven effective in reducing the incidence of disease caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

17. The most common form of disease caused by Clostridium botulinum is:

(a) Infant

(b) Wound

(d) Foodborne

(e) None of these

18. The endospores of this organism are the most heat-resistant known; it is:

(a) Clostridium tetani

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(d) Streptococcus thermicos

(e) Listeria monocytogenes

19. All of the following are true about Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, EXCEPT:

(a) Their ability to form toxin depends on infection with a bacteriophage.

(b) They can produce one of eight different toxins, all of which cause human disease.

(d) Although their endospores are highly heat-resistant, their toxin can be inactivated by only a few minutes' boiling.

(e) All of the above are true.

20. All of the following are true about poliomyelitis EXCEPT:

(a) Most poliovirus infections are inapparent or mild and nonparalytic.

(b) Polio can be caused by three strains of picornaviruses.

(c) The Salk vaccine contains live, attenuated polioviruses while the Sabin vaccine contains formalin-inactivated polioviruses.

(d) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route and pharyngeal secretions.

(e) Poliomyelitis has afflicted man for thousands of years.

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BIOL 1011 : Study Guide Micro

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