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FIN30100 Study Guide - Quiz Guide: Risk Premium, Risk Aversion, Net Present Value

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School
ND
Department
Finance
Course
FIN30100
Professor
Gianna Bern

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Document Summary

Lesson 2 financial decisions & the law of one price. Net present value (npv) decision rule: npv = pv(benefits) pv(costs, the decision rule is to accept investment projects with a positive npv and reject those that have a negative npv. In choosing among positive npv alternatives, we should take the alternative with the highest npv: maximize npv and then borrow or lend money to shift cash flows through time and find the most preferred pattern of cash flows. If a security sells for less than the pv of its future cash flows, then we can generate immediate arbitrage profits by buying the security and simultaneously borrowing the pv of all future cash flows. If a security sells for more than the pv of its future cash flows, we can generate arbitrage profits by selling (short sale) the security and simultaneously investing the pv of future cash flows.

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Related Questions

1. Which of the following would be included among the investment numbers of a capital budget?

A. Purchase price of the asset

B. Trade- in value of an asset being replaced

C. Investment tax credit from acquistion

D. Installation costs of the machinery

E. All of the above

2. A valuation determines whether a merger should occur; legalities determine what form the business combination should be.

A. True

B. False

3. A FRICTO analysis enables prudent mangers to assess important issues in asset financing

A. True

B. False

4. Timing issues involve:

A. The costs of the alternative forms of capital

B. Sequencing the alternatives, once funding amouts are known

C. None of the above

D. A & B

5. The present value of a cash flow allows an investor to assess:

A. The present value of a future cash flow

B. The value of a stream of cash flows in terms of the best and most certain alternative

C. What equivalent present payment would be equally acceptable in lieu of the investment consideration

D. A & B

E. A, B, & C

6. Hypothesis that are formed during the qualitative analysis cannot be verfied when the analyst reviews the firm's historical performance.

A. True

B. False

7. If a company consistently uses hurdle rates that are higher than its marginal cost of capital, then:

A. It will certainly increase its earnings

B. It may have fewer and fewer investment activities

C. The risk of the firm will decrease

D. A & C

E. B & C

8. If mangers have discovered an actractive investment but financing opportunities are not good as they have been, they should probaly not delay the acqusition since financing and investment decisions should not be mixed.

A. True

B. False

9. The ratio which many observers use to quantify the stock maerkt's opinion of a firm is the:

A. ROE

B. EPS

C. D/E

D. E/A

E. None of the above

10. In a staple predictable industry an average of the previous 10 year's sales growth figures probably a less accurate forcast than assuming the avg. level of sales next year as in the current year.

A. True

B. False

11. The utility of sensitivity analysis is great in merger valuations as it is in capital budgeting.

A. True

B. False

12. Present value calcualtions allows mergers to:

A. Choose assets which creaste the most value even if their cash flows are times differently

B. Express present values in terms of future cash flows

C. Create value for the firm

D. A & C

E. A,B, & C

13. FRITCTO analysis does not print our poor investments.

A. True

B. False

Amongst corporations, sole proprietorships and partnerships, approximately what percentage of revenues are generated by corporations?

50%

42%

33%

82%

Question 2

What should be the financial goal of any firm?

attracting and acquiring capital and investing it

maximization of the owners’ wealth

offering quality products at fair prices

quality customer service

Question 3
4 pts
Which of the following statement(s) is \ are true regarding the corporate management team?

In a corporation, ownership and direct control are typically separate.

Board of Directors is elected by shareholders and has ultimate decision-making authority

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – the Board typically delegates day-to-day decision making to the CEO.

All of the above



Question 4
4 pts
When calculating the present value of either a future single sum or a future annuity, it involves a process called discounting. The applicable interest rate to perform the discounting function is usually called the

yield to maturity

compound interest rate

discount rate

none of the above

Question 5
4 pts
_________________ are used to present additional information about items included in the financial statements and to present additional financial information.

stock certificates

Notes to financial statements

Preferred stocks

Convertible securities
Question 6
4 pts
What should be the financial goal of any firm?

maximization of the owners’ wealth

attracting and acquiring capital and investing it

offering quality products at fair prices

quality customer service

Question 7
4 pts
A competitive market is one in which a _____ numbers of producers compete with each other to satisfy the wants and needs of a _____ number of consumers.

Large, small

Small, small

Large, large

Small, large

Question 8
4 pts
The Valuation Principle is an analysis between the value of the ______ of a financial alternative and the value of its ______.

revenues, income

benefits, costs

expenses, costs

Question 9
4 pts
The Net Present Value rule implies that we should compare a project’s net present value (NPV) to___________. (zero \ future value \ the past).

Zero

Future Value

The Past

An Estimate

Question 10
4 pts
The internal rate of return (IRR) rule will _______ agree with the Net Present Value rule on a given investment project.

always

never

sometimes

none of the above

Question 11
5 pts
The law of one price exists due to arbitrage opportunities. If the price of a security, commodity or asset is different in two different markets, then an arbitrageur will ______ the asset in the more expensive market and ________ it where prices are lower.

sell, purchase

purchase, sell

purchase, purchase

sell, sell

Question 12
5 pts
Approaching every problem using a timeline is a(n) ________ idea because timelines identify events in a transaction or investment which might otherwise be easily overlooked.

good

bad

indifferent

unrealistic

Question 13
5 pts
The present value (PV) of a stream of cash flows is the _______ the present values of each individual cash flow

difference between

product of

sum of

same as

Question 14
5 pts
As the number of periods increases, present value (increases\decreases\stays the same).

increases

decreases

stays the same

is unrelated

Question 15
5 pts
When a constant cash flow will occur at regular intervals for a finite number of periods of time, it is called a(n) __________.

annuity

perpetuity

interest payment

principle payment

Question 16
5 pts
When a constant cash flow will occur at regular intervals forever, it is called a(n) ___________.

annuity

perpetuity

interest payment

principle payment

Question 17
5 pts
The NPV measures the ______ change in shareholder wealth that arises from undertaking a project.

consistent

dollar

annual

semi-annual

Question 18
5 pts
When calculating the present value of either a future single sum or a future annuity, the applicable interest rate is usually called the _______ rate

compounding

inverted

market

discount

Question 19
5 pts
To endow a perpetuity is the same as calculating the present value (PV) of a perpetuity. Say you want to endow an annual graduation party at your alma mater. You want the event to be a memorable one, so you budget $30,000 per year forever for the party. If the university earns 8% per year on its investments, and if the first party is in one year’s time, how much will you need to donate to endow the party?
The formula for PV of a perpetuity = C\r; = $30,000 \ 0.08; =

$3,750

$37,500

$375,000

$3,750,000

Question 20
5 pts
With an Ordinary Annuity, payments are required at the ________ of each period. An example of this is bonds which usually pay coupon payments at the end of every six months until the bond's maturity date.

beginning

middle

end

payments are not required

Question 21
5 pts
Sales of securities that the seller does not own is called a:

stop-loss order

short sale

limit order

maintenance margin

Question 22
5 pts
What is the name of the market where money market securities, bonds, and mortgages are originated and traded?

debt securities market

foreign exchange market

derivative securities market

equity securities market

Question 23
5 pts
If an investor feels the price of a stock will decline in the future, which trade should the investor undertake?

market order

buy on margin

limit order

short sale

Question 24
5 pts
For risk averse investors, how much return is expected for taking on more risk?

lower

equal

zero

higher

Question 25
5 pts
A ___________________ is a highly regulated document which details the issuers operations and finances and must be provided to each buyer of a newly issued security.

Prospectus

An underwriting agreement

A best efforts agreement

none of the above

Question 26
5 pts
Which of the following statements about liquidity ratios is true?

The lower the quick ratio relative to the current ratio, the safer a firm is in terms of liquidity.

The higher the current ratio, the more likely a firm is able to pay its short-term obligations.

The quick ratio is always between 0 and 1.

All the above statements are true.

Question 27
5 pts
The ability of a firm to meet its short-term debt obligations as they come due is indicated by which of the following ratios:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 28
5 pts
Which one of the following financial statements reports a firm’s assets and the claims on assets?

balance sheet

income statement

statement of changes in financial position

cash flow statement

Question 29
5 pts
The extent to which assets are used to support sales is indicated by which of the following ratios:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 30
5 pts
The extent to which assets are financed by borrowed funds and other liabilities is indicated by:

liquidity ratios

asset utilization ratios

financial leverage ratios

profitability ratios

Question 31
5 pts
The basic price that equates the demand for and supply of loanable funds in the financial markets is the __________:

interest rate

yield curve

term structure

cash price

none of the above

Question 32
5 pts
Federal obligations usually issued for maturities of two to ten years are called:

Treasury bonds

Treasury notes

Treasury bills

Agency issues

Question 33
5 pts
An increase in the demand for loan-able funds, holding supply constant, will cause interest rates to:

increase

decrease

stay the same

none of the above

Question 34
5 pts
As interest rates rise, the prices of existing bonds will:

rise

stay the same

fall

either a or b

Question 35
5 pts
In an inflationary period, interest rates have a tendency to:

rise

fall

stay the same

act erratically

1. Which of the following is true?
The corporation model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
The discounted dividend model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
For the discounted dividend model, a firm's weighted average cost of capital is used as the discount rate.
For the corporate valuation model, a firm's cost of equity is used as the discount rate.
Question 2.2. Which of the following is false?
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be smaller than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs < g).
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be greater than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs > g).
From the constant growth model, if the constant dividend growth rate is equal to zero, a firm's share price is equal to the constant dividend divided by the cost of equity (i.e., g=0).
If a company's constant dividend growth rate is negative, the formula for the constant growth model cannot be applied.
Question 3.3. From the discussion of a firm's capital budgeting problem in chapter 11, which of the following is false? (Points : 3.5)
The net present value method (NPV) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
The internal rate of return method (IRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the internal rate of return.
The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of cpaital.
For mutually exclusive projects, if there is a conflict between NPV and IRR, the project with the highest IRR is chosen.
The IRR is independent of a firm's weighted average cost of capital.
Question 4.4. Which of the following is true? (
As a firm's dividend payout ratio increases, the firm's WACC decreases.
The WACC only represents the "hurdle rate" for a typical project with average risk. Therefore, the project's WACC should be adjusted to reflect the project's risk.
Firms with riskier projects generally have a lower WACC.
Holding all else constant, an increase in the target debt ratio tends to lower the WACC.
Question 5.5. Which of the following is false?
If interest rates rise, the price of the bond will rise and its YTM (yield to maturity) will fall.
Short-term bond prices are less sensitive than long-term bond prices to interest rate changes.
Companies are not likely to call bonds unless interest rates have declined significantly. Thus, the call provision is valuable to firms but detrimental to long term investors.
On balance, bonds that have a sinking fund are regarded as being safer than those without such a provision.
Question 6.6. Which of the following is not true? (Points : 3.5)
According to SML (security market line), the risk premium on a high-beta stock would increase more than that on a low-beta stock.
If beta < 1.0, the security is less risky than average.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), in general, a company’s expected return will double when its beta doubles.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), if a portfolio of real world stocks has a beta of zero, the required rate of return for the portfolio is equal to the risk-free rate.
Question 7.7. P&G Industries bonds have a maturity of 15 years with a $1,000 face value, have an 8% semiannual coupon, are callable in 10 years at $1,125, and currently sell at a price of $1,105. What is their nominal annual yield to call?
6.87%.
7.37%.
11.05%.
8.32%.
Question 8.8. Which of the following is not the flaw (weakness) of the discounted payback method? (Points : 3.5)
It does not tells us by how much the project should increase shareholder wealth, or by how much a project yields over the cost of capital; it merely tells us when we recover our investment.
It ignores cash flows occurring after the payback period.
It ignores the time value of money, that is, dollars received in different years are all given the same weight.
Question 9.9. Jermey Lin has $52,500 invested a stock with a beta of 0.80 and another $47,500 invested in a stock with a beta of 3.2. If these are the only two investments in his portfolio, what is his portfolio's beta?
1.56.
1.82.
2.00.
1.94
Question 10.10. According to CAPM, if the required rate of the return of Stock A obtained from the security market line (SML) is less than the expected rate of the return of stock A from the capital market transaction, then stock A is
fairly priced.
undervalued.
overvalued.
Question 11.11. Determine the yield-to-call (to nearest 0.1 of a percent) of an LTV bond with a 12 percent coupon, that pays interest annually. The bond can be called in 5 years, has a call premium of $114, and is currently selling for $912.50. The bond has a face value of $1,000.
14.58%.
13.92%.
16.34%.
12.17%.
Question 12.12. Project M costs $1,000, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 11%. What is the project's NPV? (Points : 3.5)
$259.57.
$221.86.
$195.23.
$257.35.
Question 13.13. Project J costs $1,025, its expected cash inflows are $425 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's IRR?
12.58%.
10.82%.
11.76%.
9.64%.
Question 14.14. Project X costs $6,750, its expected cash inflows are $1250 per year for 10 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's payback?(Note, the regular payback is asked in this question, not the discounted payback.) (Points : 3.5)
5.40 years.
10 years.
4.58 years.
6.12 years.
Question 15.15. Project S costs $800, its expected cash inflows are $350 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 7%. What is the project's MIRR?
13.97%.
12.04%.
14.93%.
9.15%.
Question 16.16. Project Y costs $650, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 5 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's discounted payback?
1.47 years.
1.24 years.
1.62 years.
1.15 years.
1. Which of the following is true?
The corporation model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
The discounted dividend model can be used to value divisions and firms that do not pay dividends.
For the discounted dividend model, a firm's weighted average cost of capital is used as the discount rate.
For the corporate valuation model, a firm's cost of equity is used as the discount rate.
Question 2.2. Which of the following is false?
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be smaller than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs < g).
For the constant growth model to hold, a firm's cost of equity needs to be greater than its constant dividend growth rate (i.e., rs > g).
From the constant growth model, if the constant dividend growth rate is equal to zero, a firm's share price is equal to the constant dividend divided by the cost of equity (i.e., g=0).
If a company's constant dividend growth rate is negative, the formula for the constant growth model cannot be applied.
Question 3.3. From the discussion of a firm's capital budgeting problem in chapter 11, which of the following is false?
The net present value method (NPV) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
The internal rate of return method (IRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the internal rate of return.
The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the weighted average cost of cpaital.
For mutually exclusive projects, if there is a conflict between NPV and IRR, the project with the highest IRR is chosen.
The IRR is independent of a firm's weighted average cost of capital.
Question 4.4. Which of the following is true? (Points : 3.5)
As a firm's dividend payout ratio increases, the firm's WACC decreases.
The WACC only represents the "hurdle rate" for a typical project with average risk. Therefore, the project's WACC should be adjusted to reflect the project's risk.
Firms with riskier projects generally have a lower WACC.
Holding all else constant, an increase in the target debt ratio tends to lower the WACC.
Question 5.5. Which of the following is false? (Points : 3.5)
If interest rates rise, the price of the bond will rise and its YTM (yield to maturity) will fall.
Short-term bond prices are less sensitive than long-term bond prices to interest rate changes.
Companies are not likely to call bonds unless interest rates have declined significantly. Thus, the call provision is valuable to firms but detrimental to long term investors.
On balance, bonds that have a sinking fund are regarded as being safer than those without such a provision.
Question 6.6. Which of the following is not true? (Points : 3.5)
According to SML (security market line), the risk premium on a high-beta stock would increase more than that on a low-beta stock.
If beta < 1.0, the security is less risky than average.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), in general, a company’s expected return will double when its beta doubles.
According to the Security Market Line (SML), if a portfolio of real world stocks has a beta of zero, the required rate of return for the portfolio is equal to the risk-free rate.
Question 7.7. P&G Industries bonds have a maturity of 15 years with a $1,000 face value, have an 8% semiannual coupon, are callable in 10 years at $1,125, and currently sell at a price of $1,105. What is their nominal annual yield to call? (Points : 3.5)
6.87%.
7.37%.
11.05%.
8.32%.
Question 8.8. Which of the following is not the flaw (weakness) of the discounted payback method? (Points : 3.5)
It does not tells us by how much the project should increase shareholder wealth, or by how much a project yields over the cost of capital; it merely tells us when we recover our investment.
It ignores cash flows occurring after the payback period.
It ignores the time value of money, that is, dollars received in different years are all given the same weight.
Question 9.9. Jermey Lin has $52,500 invested a stock with a beta of 0.80 and another $47,500 invested in a stock with a beta of 3.2. If these are the only two investments in his portfolio, what is his portfolio's beta? (Points : 3.5)
1.56.
1.82.
2.00.
1.94
Question 10.10. According to CAPM, if the required rate of the return of Stock A obtained from the security market line (SML) is less than the expected rate of the return of stock A from the capital market transaction, then stock A is (
fairly priced.
undervalued.
overvalued.
Question 11.11. Determine the yield-to-call (to nearest 0.1 of a percent) of an LTV bond with a 12 percent coupon, that pays interest annually. The bond can be called in 5 years, has a call premium of $114, and is currently selling for $912.50. The bond has a face value of $1,000. (Points : 3.5)
14.58%.
13.92%.
16.34%.
12.17%.
Question 12.12. Project M costs $1,000, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 11%. What is the project's NPV?
$259.57.
$221.86.
$195.23.
$257.35.
Question 13.13. Project J costs $1,025, its expected cash inflows are $425 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's IRR? (
12.58%.
10.82%.
11.76%.
9.64%.
Question 14.14. Project X costs $6,750, its expected cash inflows are $1250 per year for 10 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's payback?(Note, the regular payback is asked in this question, not the discounted payback.) (Points : 3.5)
5.40 years.
10 years.
4.58 years.
6.12 years.
Question 15.15. Project S costs $800, its expected cash inflows are $350 per year for 3 years, and its WACC is 7%. What is the project's MIRR? (
13.97%.
12.04%.
14.93%.
9.15%.
Question 16.16. Project Y costs $650, its expected cash inflows are $500 per year for 5 years, and its WACC is 10%. What is the project's discounted payback?
1.47 years.
1.24 years.
1.62 years.
1.15 years.