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BIOL 1202 Chapter : Chapter 10 Notes

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azuremammoth471
15 Mar 2019
School
LSU
Department
Biological Sciences
Course
BIOL 1202
Professor
All

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Document Summary

Species are different due to their dna, and dna (a,g,t,c) is transcripted to rna which is then used to make proteins (most living things do this) Genes are on your chromosomes: gene rna to make protein (mutations is a change in the genetic level at the level of dna sequence) Different code in messenger rna could change the protein produced: gene: segment of dna located at a particular place on a chromosome. Humans have 2 copies of chromosomes (blood type is a multiple allele locus: dna codes for specific a. a. sequence in a protein or for the rna that helps make proteins. All living organisms use double-stranded dna as their genomes, only viruses do not have double-stranded dna. Rna- usually single stranded, sometimes can be double. All living organisms transcribe dna to rna and use rna to make proteins. After gene types are turned on they are either transcribed or expressed.

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Related Questions

1. _________________________ is the name of the process that produces proteins using RNA molecules.

a.Transcription

b Translation

c. Replication

d. Mutagenesis

2. The peptide bonding site on the ribosome:

a. A site

b. P site

c. E site

d. D site

3. The name given to the bond formed between two amino acids.

a. Hydrogen bond

b. Double bond

c. Peptide bond

d. Negative bond

4. __________________________ is the movement of the mRNA molecule on the ribosome to open up the A-site for the new incoming amino acid.

a. Transformation

b. Mutation

c. Translocation

d. Initiation

5. What does the term semi-conservative mean.

a. Replication of RNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of one old strand of RNA and one new strand of RNA.

b. Replication of DNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of one old strand of DNA and one new strand of DNA.

c. Replication of DNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of new strands of nucleotides.

d. Transcription of RNA is semi conservative.

6. This molecule functions during protein synthesis to recognize the codon and bring the proper amino acid back to the ribosome for translation.

a. mRNA

b. tRNA

c. rRNA

d. DNA polymerase

7. What is meant by the base-pairing rule.

a. Bases on a single strand of DNA are always found as pairs

b. Adenine always base pairs with guanine; cytosine with thymine

c. Adenine always base pairs with thymine; cytosine with guanine

d. Bases on a single strand of RNA are found in pair.

8. In this step of protein synthesis, amino acids are added to a growing polypeptide chain.

a. Initiation.

b. Elongation.

c. Termination.

d. Transpiration.

9. Three complementary bases found in a mRNA are called ____________________.

a. Anti-codon.

b. Triplet.

c. Doublet.

d. Codons.

10. Which statement best describes the job or function of the messenger RNA.

a. Carries the map of the gene sequence in the form of codons to the cytoplasm

for translation of the protein.

b. It transfers amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis.

c. It forms the ribosomes.

d. It helps replicate DNA.

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

QuestionGroup: #21 Gene expression 2

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Homework

21

The direct end result of gene expression is which of the following?

A

Amino acids

B

Translation

C

Proteins

D

Carbohydrates

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QuestionGroup: #22 Mutation

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22

Which of the following is the ways in which nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins?

A

One nucleotide is substituted by another nucleotide, which can cause an early stop codon to be incorporated into the amino acid sequence resulting in a truncated protein.

B

One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can change an amino acid in the protein sequence

C

Nucleotides are inserted into a nucleotide sequence causing a frameshift in the sequence.

D

All three choices may cause mutations.

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QuestionGroup: #23 Mutation 2

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23

Mutations are the result of which of the following?

A

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different carbohydrates

B

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different proteins

C

Change in the order of transfer RNA to messenger RNA so that the transfer RNA take over the role of Messenger RNA

D

Primarily an alteration in the sequence of nucleotides in the abnormal proteins

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QuestionGroup: #24 Cell division

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24

There are two major kinds of cell division. Which of the following plays a major role in promoting genetic diversity?

A

Meiosis since it causes the cells to make more daughter cells than mitosis

B

Mitosis since it causes the cells to duplicate and eventually have mutations

C

Meiosis since it causes the DNA sequences to be separated into new patterns in the daughter cells.

D

Mitosis since it essential for the ovaries in humans to separate and duplicate

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QuestionGroup: #25 Cancer

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25

Genes that slow down or stop the cell cycle are called...

A

Apoptotic genes

B

Oncogenes

C

Restriction genes

D

Tumor suppressor genes

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QuestionGroup: #26 Cancer2

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26

The common theme in the development of all cancers is...

A

Mutation

B

Evolution

C

Infection

D

Syncopation

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QuestionGroup: #27 Genetics

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27

Punnett's square is which of the following?

A

Example of all possible combinations of alleles

B

Example of all possible combinations of chromosomes

C

Example of only certain combination of alleles since some will not be expressed.

D

Example of all possible combinations of DNA

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QuestionGroup: #28 Embryo development

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28

Which of the following is the end of the cleavage phase?

A

A fetus

B

Formation of a blastocyst

C

Implantation to the lining of the uterus

D

Fewer number of cells

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QuestionGroup: #29 Development of organ system

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29

For organs to be differentiated, which of the following is the first step?

A

Stem cells trigger the development of differentiated cells

B

Tissues assemble into organ systems such as blood

C

Tissue specific genes in stem cells are triggered

D

Differentiated cells form tissues

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QuestionGroup: #30 Development and society

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30

A pregnant mother ingests a chemical which her mother said would be great for the baby. When the baby was born, it had a large head and flippers for arms. What caused this phenotype?

A

The chemicals were teratogens which influenced oxidative phosphorylation causing the changes in the phenotype.

B

The chemicals influenced the expression of different stem cells.

C

There is no way to assume the chemicals caused the phenotype since we have no data on other mothers who took this medicine. It could have been purely by chance.

D

The chemicals were teratogens which caused the baby to show early signs of evolution.