ECON 2030 Chapter : Econ 2030 Feb 25

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azuremammoth471

15 Mar 2019

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Government revenue=(amt of tax)(quantity transacted) from whose surplus is this gov"t revenue coming from. Next test is 3 weeks from today, covers chapters 8,12,14,16 . The tax is collected from the buyer, but that"s not who bears the burden. Pbuy - psell =amt of tax with an excise tax. Economic surplus = consumer surplus + producer surplus + government revenue. If buyers are less willing and able to buy, the quantity transacted decreases with a tax, and you reach a new equilibrium quantity transacted supply curve steeper than demand curve, price more inelastic. Economic surplus = consumer surplus + producer surplus + government revenue up by amt of tax down down down. The government can use this money to fund projects, defense, infrastructure, education, etc. If this was a market for cigarettes, this might reduce adverse public health problems and health costs. Which side bore a larger portion of the tax burden? the sellers (in this case)

Related Questions

The market for packets of cigarettes has been described by the following supply and demand functions:

Supply: P = 10 + 4Q Demand: P = 100 - 5Q where P is the price in dollars and Q is the quantity of packets of cigarettes per month (in thousands).

Part A) Construct a graph of supply and demand for this market showing all intercepts. What are the equilibrium prices and quantities? Show these on your graph.

Part B) At the market equilibrium price, what would be the total monthly revenue?

Part C) Calculate consumer surplus at the market equilibrium and indicate this surplus as an area on your diagram.

Part D) Calculate producer surplus at the market equilibrium and indicate this surplus as an area on your diagram.

Part E) Assume that a per-unit tax of $9.00 per packet of cigarettes is imposed by the government on the suppliers of cigarettes. Depict this on your demand and supply diagram. (Hint: the new tax inclusive supply function will be: P = 19 + 4Q). What is the new market equilibrium quantity? What price will consumers now pay and what price will suppliers now receive?

Part F) How much is the government revenue from the tax on suppliers?

Part G) Calculate consumer surplus and producer surplus after the imposition of the tax and any deadweight loss associated with the tax. Indicate these surplus and tax revenue areas on your diagram. Explain what the deadweight loss represents.

Part H) Now assume that instead of imposing a per-unit tax of $9.00 per pack on the suppliers of cigarettes the government decides to apply the same per-unit tax of $9.00 on consumers. Depict this on your demand and supply diagram. (Hint: the new tax inclusive demand function will be: P = 91 - 5Q) What is the new market equilibrium quantity? What price will consumers now pay and what price will suppliers now receive? (5 marks)

Part I) How much is the government revenue from the tax on consumers? (1 mark)

Part J) Who bears the greatest burden of the tax in each case, producers or consumers? Does your answer depend on whether the tax is levied on producers or consumers?

I am really having difficulty understanding Part J - can that please be answered with some detail?

carminewildebeest911

40. If the inflation rate falls below the rate that is expected, which of the following will happen?
A) inflationary expectations will increase and the Phillips curve will shift downward in the short run
B) inflationary expectations will decrease and the short-run Phillips curve will shift downward in the long run
C) inflationary expectations will decrease and the short-run Phillips curve will shift upward in the long run
D) inflationary expectations will increase and the Phillips curve will shift upward in the short run
E) inflationary expectations will decrease and the Phillips curve will shift downward in the short run

41. Which case represents the largest increase in the real national debt?
A) the price level increases by 500 percent and nominal debt increases by 500 percent
B) the price level increases by 200 percent and nominal debt increases by 600 percent
C) the price level decreases by 50 percent and nominal debt increases by 300 percent
D) the price level increases by 400 percent and nominal debt increases by 200 percent
E) the price level decreases by 90 percent and nominal debt increases by 200 percent

42. Which of the following is a transfer payment?
A) the federal government's budget deficit
B) unemployment compensation payments
C) military spending
D) wages of government employees
E) the excise tax on gasoline

43. One problem with using countercyclical fiscal policy is that
A) it may take months for the policy to be enacted
B) the policy may take effect too quickly
C) the money supply cannot be changed until several months have passed
D) tax cuts must be matched with spending changes
E) it has no effect on consumption spending

44. Suppose you are the president of a large bank. In which situation would you be most reluctant to loan money to a country?
A) its nominal debt is $10 trillion
B) its nominal debt is 1 percent of nominal GDP
C) its nominal deficit is $150 billion
D) its real deficit is 100 percent of real GDP
E) its real debt is 1 percent of real GDP

45. The national debt
A) can be paid off without major economic effects
B) need never be paid off
C) is no more serious a problem than is a corporation's debt
D) should not exist during a period of economic prosperity
E) is the simple sum of post budget deficits

46. Tax avoidance
A) reduces the difference between the average and marginal tax rates
B) increases federal revenue when it reduces the need for IRS workers
C) reduces federal revenue but does not affect tax progressivity
D) makes the tax system less progressive
E) makes the tax system more progressive

47. The national debt
A) is currently greater than the annual federal deficit
B) is reduced by the revenue generated from the federal deficit
C) decreases as the deficit is reduced
D) is a flow variable
E) varies depending on developments in the stock market

48. In the long run,
A) a larger budget deficit means a larger money supply
B) lower investment spending means slower growth of the standard of living
C) a larger budget deficit means higher consumption spending
D) a larger budget surplus means a smaller capital stock
E) government spending has no effect on the budget deficit or surplus

49. In an expansion,
A) federal budget deficits tend to rise
B) federal budget deficits tend to fall
C) the federal debt tends to rise faster than in a recession
D) federal government tax receipts tend to fall
E) there is pressure on the Fed to monetize the debt

50. Which of the following is not considered an automatic stabilizer?
A) food stamp program for people with low incomes
B) welfare program for families with dependent children
C) Medicaid, a health program for the poor
D) financial assistance for disabled people
E) unemployment programs that pay benefits to those who lose their jobs

whiteprairie-dog658

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

graychimpanzee865

ECON 2030 Chapter : Econ 2030 Feb 25

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