NET 4000 Chapter Notes - Chapter 12.6.6: Ssh File Transfer Protocol, File Transfer Protocol, Hostname

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9 Dec 2017

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The /etc/ssh/sshd_config file configures the ssh daemon on the server system. Be aware of the following important options for configuring an ssh server: If an allowusers line is used in the file, all users except those listed are denied access by default. Denyusers lists users not allowed to use ssh. If a denyusers line is used in the file, all users except those listed are granted access by default. Protocol specifies which version of ssh is allowed when establishing a connection to a server. Ssh 2 is more secure, and is supported on newer distributions. Ssh 1 is typically used on older systems. Listenaddress specifies the addresses that ssh should use when listening for requests. By default, the server listens on all ip addresses assigned to it. Usepam enables the pluggable authentication modules (pam) interface between sshd and the system. Permitrootlogin specifies whether users can log in as root over.

Related Questions

REVIEW QUESTIONS â Chapter 5

1. In federal courts, discovery requests may be directed to ____________.

a. Only parties to the lawsuit.

b. Only parties joined to the lawsuit, as approved by the court.

c. Parties and nonparties to the lawsuit.

d. None of the above.

2. Which of the following is not one of the four major types of discovery tools?

a. Requests for admissions.

b. Interrogatories.

c. Depositions.

d. All of the above are major types of discovery tools.

3. Which of the following statements is true regarding witness lists?

a. Their production does not require a discovery request.

b. Their production requires a subpoena.

c. Their production requires court approval.

d. None of the above.

4. Which of the following may not be commanded by a subpoena?

a. Testimony.

b. The production of documents.

c. Seizing of documents.

d. All of the above may be commanded by a subpoena.

5. High Quality Products Inc. files a suit against National Software Corporation. Mike is a witness for High Quality. Jim is a witness for National Software. High Quality may direct interrogatories to ____________.

a. National Software only.

b. Jim only.

c. National Software or Jim only.

d. National Software, Jim, or Mike.

e. None of the above.

6. In Ronâs suit against Second National Bank, the discovery phase would include all of the following except ____________.

a. Ronâs complaint.

b. Ronâs deposition.

c. Ronâs request for Second Nationalâs admissions.

d. Second Nationalâs replies to Ronâs interrogatories.

e. None of the above.

7. Home Appliances Inc. files suit against H.H. Jones Corporation over a contract between them. Before the trial starts, what can H.H. Jones obtain from Home Appliances?

a. Access to related documents in Homeâs possession.

b. Accurate information about Homeâs trade secrets.

c. An admission of truth of matters unrelated to the contract.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

8. Abusive tactics are fostered by the court system because ____________.

a. Attorneys know that lawyers are given only one opportunity to comply with discovery requests.

b. Lawyers have an incentive to increase discovery costs as they can bill their clients for more hours worked.

c. No penalties exist whatsoever for using abusive tactics.

d. None of the above.

9. The FRCP allows each party up to 10 depositions ____________.

a. To be taken however the party sees fit.

b. To be computed discretely allowing for the fact that a witnessâs deposition may be taken more than once.

c. To be calculated cumulatively for plaintiffs, defendants, and third-party defendants.

d. As long as they are taken in a one-year time span.

e. None of the above.

10. If a party refuses to answer an interrogatory, the opposing party may file a motion to compel an answer. A motion to compel an answer ____________.

a. Will be granted if the moving party shows the answer is necessary to prepare for trial.

b. May be denied if the question asked is subject to a timely and valid objection.

c. May be denied if the question asked is an invasion of privacy of the other party.

d. Will be granted if the opposing party does not file a motion to refuse to respond.

e. None of the above.

11. Tom worked for a messenger service owned by Dalton. While Tom was driving a Dalton-owned vehicle on business in Miami, he hit and injured Pedro, a pedestrian who resides in Alabama. Pedro brought a diversity action against Dalton in federal court in Florida on a theory of respondeat superior (principal-agent). Personal service was properly made, pursuant to FRCP 4(e)(2), on Dalton, a Florida resident. Dalton now wishes to implead Tom as a third-party defendant (if Dalton is held liable to Pedro, Dalton will be entitled to indemnity from Tom). Tom is a resident of Puerto Rico and lives in San Juan, a two-hour flight from Miami. Dalton caused a licensed process server to serve Tom personally at Tomâs home in San Juan. Assume that Florida has no longarm statute allowing state-court jurisdiction over any defendant who cannot be physically found with Florida. Does the Florida federal court have personal jurisdiction over Daltonâs third-party claim against Tom?

a. Yes, because Tom was a third-party defendant who was served within 100 miles of the federal courthouse.

b. No, because there is no Florida long-arm statute that would authorize state-court jurisdiction over Tom.

c. Yes, because service was properly made on Dalton within Florida, the state or district where the federal suit is pending.

d. Yes, because Pedro, Dalton, and Tom are all citizens of different states or districts.

e. None of the above

roseleopard50

Alice J. and Bruce M. Byrd are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Their Social Security numbers are 123-45-6789 and 111-11-1112, respectively. Aliceâs birthday is September 21, 1969, and Bruceâs is June 27, 1968. They live at 473 Revere Avenue, Lowell, MA 01850. Alice is the office manager for Lowell Dental Clinic, 433 Broad Street, Lowell, MA 01850 (employer identification number 98-7654321). Bruce is the manager of a Super Burgers fast-food outlet owned and operated by Plymouth Corporation, 1247 Central Avenue, Hauppauge, NY 11788 (employer identification number 11-1111111). The following information is shown on their Wage and Tax Statements (Form Wâ2) for 2016.

Line Description

Alice Bruce 1 Wages, tips, other compensation $58,000 $62,100

2 Federal income tax withheld 4,500 6,300

3 Social Security wages 58,000 62,100

4 Social Security tax withheld 3,596 3,850

5 Medicare wages and tips 58,000 62,100

6 Medicare tax withheld 841 900

15 State Massachusetts Massachusetts

16 State wages, tips, etc. 58,000 62,100

17 State income tax withheld 2,950 3,100

The Byrds provide over half of the support of their two children, Cynthia (born January 25, 1992, Social Security number 123-45-6788) and John (born February 7, 1996, Social Security number 123-45-6786). Both children are full-time students and live with the Byrds except when they are away at college. Cynthia earned $4,200 from a summer internship in 2016, and John earned $3,800 from a part-time job. During 2016, the Byrds provided 60% of the total support of Bruceâs widower father, Sam Byrd (born March 6, 1940, Social Security number 123-45-6787). Sam lived alone and covered the rest of his support with his Social Security benefits. Sam died in November, and Bruce, the beneficiary of a policy on Samâs life, received life insurance proceeds of $1,600,000 on December 28. The Byrds had the following expenses relating to their personal residence during 2016:

Property taxes $5,000

Qualified interest on home mortgage 8,700 Repairs to roof 5,750

Utilities 4,100

Fire and theft insurance 1,900

The Byrds had the following medical expenses for 2016:

Medical insurance premiums $4,500

Doctor bill for Sam incurred in 2015 and not paid until 2016 7,600

Operation for Sam 8,500

Prescription medicines for Sam 900

Hospital expenses for Sam 3,500

Reimbursement from insurance company, received in 2016 3,600

The medical expenses for Sam represent most of the 60% that Bruce contributed toward his fatherâs support. Other relevant information follows:

â¢ When they filed their 2015 state return in 2016, the Byrds paid additional state income tax of $900.

â¢ During 2016, Alice and Bruce attended a dinner dance sponsored by the Lowell Police Disability Association (a qualified charitable organization). The Byrds paid $300 for the tickets. The cost of comparable entertainment would normally be $50.

â¢ The Byrds contributed $5,000 to Lowell Presbyterian Church and gave used clothing (cost of $1,200 and fair market value of $350) to the Salvation Army. All donations are supported by receipts, and the clothing is in very good condition.

â¢ Alice and Bruce made a gift to a needy family who lost their home in a fire ($100). In addition, they made several cash gifts to homeless men downtown ($35).

â¢ In 2016, the Byrds received interest income of $2,750, which was reported on a Form 1099âINT from Second National Bank, 125 Oak Street, Lowell, MA 01850 (Employer Identification Number 98-7654322). The mortgage (outstanding balance of $425,000 as of January 1, 2016) was taken out by the Byrds on May 1, 2012.

â¢ Aliceâs employer requires that all employees wear uniforms to work. During 2016, Alice spent $850 on new uniforms and $566 on laundry charges.

â¢ Bruce paid $400 for an annual subscription to the Journal of Franchise Management and $741 for annual membership dues to his professional association.

â¢ Neither Aliceâs nor Bruceâs employer reimburses for employee expenses.

â¢ The Byrds do not keep the receipts for the sales taxes they paid and had no major purchases subject to sales tax.

â¢ All members of the Byrd family had health care coverage for all months of 2016.

â¢ This year the Byrds gave each of their children $2,000, which was then deposited into their Roth IRAs.

â¢ Alice and Bruce paid no estimated Federal income tax.

Neither Alice nor Bruce wants to designate $3 to the Presidential Election Campaign.

Tax Computation:

Compute net tax payable or refund due for Alice and Bruce Byrd for 2016. If they have overpaid, they want the amount to be refunded to them. If you use tax forms for your computations, you will need Forms 1040 and 2106 and Schedules A and B.

cyanwoodchuck669

Question 5

1. Which of the following does not have default risk?

	a.	Money market mutual funds.
	b.	Commercial paper.
	c.	Negotiable certificates of deposit.
	d.	U.S. Treasury bills.

2 points

Question 6

1. The spread is the:

	a.	Difference between the bid and ask prices.
	b.	Commission charged by the broker.
	c.	Difference between the purchase and sale prices.
	d.	Difference between the commissions charged by full-service and discount brokers.

3 points

Question 7

1. Securities regulations protect investors by:

	a.	Requiring disclosures of information by firms.
	b.	Stopping investors from buying overpriced stock.
	c.	Reducing competition among brokers.
	d.	Establishing commission schedules.

3 points

Question 8

1. If a stock is bought on margin:

	a.	The full amount of the cost of the investment is borrowed.
	b.	The commissions on the investment are increased.
	c.	The cost of the investment is reduced.
	d.	The interest on the borrowed funds is set by the SEC.

3 points

Question 9

1. Sarbanes-Oxley, the latest important securities law:

	a.	Reduces potential conflicts between securities analysts and investment bankers.
	b.	Legalizes the sale of securities by investment brokers.
	c.	Requires corporate boards of directors to own stock.
	d.	Mandates that security analysts file their recommendations with the SEC.

2 points

Question 10

1. Which of the following are true about the present value of a dollar?

1. It increases as the interest rate increases.

2. It decreases as the interest rate increases.

3. It increases as the time period increases.

4. It decreases as the time period increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 11

1. Time value concepts may not be used to determine:

	a.	The present value of an annuity.
	b.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	c.	The future value of $100 deposited in a bank.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 12

1. What is the marginal tax rate?

	a.	The tax rate paid on investment gains from items purchased on margin.
	b.	The tax rate paid on an additional dollar of taxable income.
	c.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 13

1. Examples of capital gains include sales of which of the following?

1. IRA accounts.

2. Stocks sold for a profit.

3. Real estate sold for a profit.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 14

1. With a Roth IRA, the individual:

	a.	May deduct annual contributions.
	b.	Earns tax-free income.
	c.	Defers taxes.
	d.	Avoids estate taxes.

2 points

Question 15

1. Sources of unsystematic risk include which of the following?

1. A firms financing decisions.

2. A firms operations.

3. Fluctuating market prices.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

2 points

Question 16

1. For diversification to reduce risk:

	a.	The returns on the individual securities should be highly correlated.
	b.	The prices of the stocks should be stable.
	c.	The returns on the individual securities should be negatively correlated.
	d.	One firm should offer dividends and the other should offer capital gains.

2 points

Question 17

1. Which of the following are true about beta coefficients?

1. They are a measure of systematic risk.

2. They relate the return on an individual security to the return on the market.

3. They measure the variability of an assets return.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 18

1. Which of the following does an efficient portfolio do?

1. Maximizes risk for a given return.

2. Minimizes risk for a given return.

3. Maximizes return for a given level of risk.

4. Minimizes return for a given level of risk.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 19

1. The security market line does not:

	a.	Indicate the relationship between risk and return.
	b.	Relate the market return and beta to a stock's return.
	c.	Identify the optimal portfolio for the investor.
	d.	Use beta coefficients as a measure of risk.

3 points

Question 20

1. Mutual funds ____ realized capital gains and income (for example, dividends received):

	a.	Retain.
	b.	Reinvest.
	c.	Distribute.
	d.	Distribute or reinvest.

2 points

Question 21

1. An index fund limits its portfolio to:

	a.	High quality securities.
	b.	Stocks that respond to changes in the consumer price index.
	c.	Stocks included in an aggregate measure of stock prices.
	d.	Stocks of firms in a particular industry.

2 points

Question 22

1. Mutual funds with beta coefficients greater than 1.0:

	a.	Have outperformed the market.
	b.	Have underperformed the market.
	c.	Have more systematic risk than the market.
	d.	Have less systematic risk than the market.

3 points

Question 23

1. Which of the following will tend to cause a stock's price to fall?

1. The firms beta declines.

2. The firms beta increases.

3. The risk-free rate declines.

4. The risk-free rate increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 24

1. The use of P/E ratios to select stocks suggests that:

	a.	High P/E stocks should be purchased.
	b.	Low P/E ratio stocks are overvalued.
	c.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic low P/E.
	d.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic high P/E.

2 points

Question 25

1. What does the efficient market hypothesis require?

1. Financial markets to be competitive.

2. Prices to adjust rapidly.

3. Prices of undervalued securities to fall.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 26

1. Which of the following does the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis suggest?

1. Inside information will not lead to superior investment results.

2. Inside information will lead to superior investment results.

3. Studying financial statements will not lead to superior investment results.

4. Studying financial statements will lead to superior investment results.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 27

1. Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?

	a.	NASDAQ market index.
	b.	Dow Jones industrial average.
	c.	S&P 500 stock index.
	d.	AMEX market value index.

3 points

Question 28

1. What is dollar-cost averaging?

	a.	Periodically buying a round lot of stock.
	b.	Periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock.
	c.	A means to increase the average cost basis.
	d.	A means to ensure a positive return.

2 points

Question 29

1. Stock dividends cause:

	a.	The price of a share of stock to rise.
	b.	The price of a share of stock to fall.
	c.	The value of the firm to rise.
	d.	The value of the firm to fall.

2 points

Question 30

1. Which of the following occurs when a stock has a two-for-one split?

	a.	The price of the stock doubles.
	b.	The firm's assets increase.
	c.	The firm's liabilities decrease.
	d.	The par value of the stock is reduced.

3 points

Question 31

1. Dividend reinvestment plans offer which of the following advantages?

1. Deferment of federal income taxes.

2. A convenient means to accumulate shares.

3. Dollar-cost averaging.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2.

3 points

Question 32

1. When the Federal Reserve seeks to expand the money supply, it:

	a.	Sells securities.
	b.	Buy securities.
	c.	Runs a deficit.
	d.	Runs a surplus.

2 points

Question 33

1. The sum of cash, currency, and demand deposits is:

	a.	M1.
	b.	M2.
	c.	M3.
	d.	M4.

3 points

Question 34

1. If the Federal Reserve lowers the target federal funds rate:

	a.	The discount rate rises.
	b.	Liquidity in the banking system is increased.
	c.	Security prices fall.
	d.	Required reserves are also decreased.

3 points

Question 35

1. The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should:

	a.	Buy bonds.
	b.	Anticipate higher interest rates.
	c.	Avoid real estate investments.
	d.	Sell stocks of gold companies.

3 points

Question 36

1. The current ratio is unaffected by:

	a.	Using cash to pay a dividend.
	b.	The collection of an account receivable.
	c.	Selling inventory for a profit.
	d.	Selling bonds and using the funds to finance inventory.

2 points

Question 37

1. Which of the following are true as the debt ratio increases?

1. Fewer assets are debt financed.

2. More assets are debt financed.

3. The ratio of debt equity increases.

4. The ratio of debt equity decreases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 38

1. The technical approach suggests that future stock prices are forecasted by:

	a.	Past stock rates.
	b.	Financial ratios.
	c.	Accounting statements.
	d.	Monetary policy.

2 points

Question 39

1. The Dogs of the Dow strategy:

	a.	Forecasts the direction of the Dow Jones averages.
	b.	Suggests buying the Dow stocks with the highest dividend yields.
	c.	Outperforms the S&P 500.
	d.	Suggests buying the lowest-priced Dow stocks.

3 points

Question 40

1. Behavioral finance combines aspects from which two fields in an attempt to identify human traits that affect investment decisions?

	a.	Accounting and finance.
	b.	Finance and psychology.
	c.	Physics and finance.
	d.	Finance and marketing.

ochrewalrus157

NET 4000 Chapter Notes - Chapter 12.6.6: Ssh File Transfer Protocol, File Transfer Protocol, Hostname

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