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BIOL10002 Lecture Notes - Lecture 9: Dna Replication, Semiconservative Replication, Phosphodiester Bond

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champagnemole973
21 Jul 2018
School
University of Melbourne
Department
Biology
Course
BIOL10002
Professor
Mary

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Document Summary

Three possible replication patterns occur during dna replication: Semiconservative replication: each parent strand serves as a template for a new strand, and the 2 new dna molecules each have one old and one new strand. Conservative replication: original double helix serves as a template for, but does not contribute to a new double helix. Dispersive replication: fragments of the original dna molecule serve as templates for assembling two new molecules, each containing old and new parts, perhaps at random. Semiconservative dna replication in the cell involves several different enzymes and other proteins. The dna double helix is unwound to separate the two template strands and make them available for new base pairing. As new nucleotides form complementary base pairs with template dna, they are covalently linked together by phosphodiester bonds, forming a polymer whose base sequence is complementary to the bases in the template strand.

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Related Questions

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

1. _________________________ is the name of the process that produces proteins using RNA molecules.

a.Transcription

b Translation

c. Replication

d. Mutagenesis

2. The peptide bonding site on the ribosome:

a. A site

b. P site

c. E site

d. D site

3. The name given to the bond formed between two amino acids.

a. Hydrogen bond

b. Double bond

c. Peptide bond

d. Negative bond

4. __________________________ is the movement of the mRNA molecule on the ribosome to open up the A-site for the new incoming amino acid.

a. Transformation

b. Mutation

c. Translocation

d. Initiation

5. What does the term semi-conservative mean.

a. Replication of RNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of one old strand of RNA and one new strand of RNA.

b. Replication of DNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of one old strand of DNA and one new strand of DNA.

c. Replication of DNA is semi-conservative, each new strand consists of new strands of nucleotides.

d. Transcription of RNA is semi conservative.

6. This molecule functions during protein synthesis to recognize the codon and bring the proper amino acid back to the ribosome for translation.

a. mRNA

b. tRNA

c. rRNA

d. DNA polymerase

7. What is meant by the base-pairing rule.

a. Bases on a single strand of DNA are always found as pairs

b. Adenine always base pairs with guanine; cytosine with thymine

c. Adenine always base pairs with thymine; cytosine with guanine

d. Bases on a single strand of RNA are found in pair.

8. In this step of protein synthesis, amino acids are added to a growing polypeptide chain.

a. Initiation.

b. Elongation.

c. Termination.

d. Transpiration.

9. Three complementary bases found in a mRNA are called ____________________.

a. Anti-codon.

b. Triplet.

c. Doublet.

d. Codons.

10. Which statement best describes the job or function of the messenger RNA.

a. Carries the map of the gene sequence in the form of codons to the cytoplasm

for translation of the protein.

b. It transfers amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis.

c. It forms the ribosomes.

d. It helps replicate DNA.

1. In Humans, many types of cancers have been linked to?

A. Duplications
B. Inversions
C. translocations
D. deletions
E all of these

2. 5- bromoouracil is mutagenic because it is a(n)

a. base-modifying agent
b. base analog
c. intercalating agent
d. alkylating agent.

3.Ultraviolet radiation creates __________ in DNA

A. 5-methyl cytosine residues
B. breakages
C point mutations
D. mutational hot spots
E thymine dimers

4. The telomeres of chromosomes is composed of

A. heterochromatin
b. nucleosome
c. histone
d. achromatic

5. In eukaryotes, a replicon is

a. the distance between the origin of replication and thetermination of replication
b. a single chromosome
c. the entire genome
d. one DNA strand of a single chromosome

6. In a nonreciprocal interchomosomal translocation, a segment of achromosome is

a. exchanged with an identical segment on a differentchromosome
b. exchanged with an identical segment on a sister chromatid
c. transferred to a different chromosome without a reciprocalexchange of genetic material
d. transferred to a new location on the same chromosome without areciprocal exchange of genetic material

7. Somatic mutations are always.

a. spontaneous
b. carcinogenic
c. heritable
d. lethal
e. none of these

8. A woman with an XO genotype is

a. aneuploid
b. euploid
c. diploid
d. poluploid


9. Spontaneous mutations may occur as a result of

a. all of these
b. errors in DNA replication
c. transposition
d. none of these
e. normal cell biochemistry

10. In the semi conservative model of DNA replication, progenydouble helices consist of

a. one parental DNA strand and one new strand
b. one parental DNA strand and one new RNA strand
c. two new RNA strands
d. two parental DNA strands
e. two new DNA strands

11. A mutation in a gene may alter a cell’s

a. phenotype
b. genotype and phenotype
c. genotype

12. During replication, the direction of synthesis of new DNA fromthe leading strand is

a. both 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’
b. none of these
c. 3’ to 5’
d. from left to right only
e. 5’ to 3’ only

13. A mutation that results in a switch from a purine-pyramidingbase pair to a pyramiding-purine base pair is a _________mutation.

a. neutral
b. transition
c. missense
d. transversion
e. nonsense

14. A trisomic human cell would contain how many chromosomes?

a. 45
b. 46,
c. 47.
d. 48

15. In a strand of DNA, a _____________ bond connects the phosphategroup of one nucleotide to the sugar of the adjacentnucleotide

a. hydrogen
b. ester
c. phosphodiester
d. phosphate
e. disulfide

16. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by which type of chromosomalmutation?

a. deletion
b. duplication
c. translocation
d. transversion
e. inversion

17. During replication, the role of DNA primase is to

a. add nucleotide to the growing DNA chain
b. synthesize a short chain for RNA
c. untwist the double helix at the origin of replication
d. relax the super coiling of the double helix
e. synthesize the primo some

18. A(n) ____________ inversion involves the Centro mere

a. chromocentric
b. paracentric
c. epicentric
d. percentric
e. concentric

19. Which of the following substances mutates DNA by intercalatingbetween adjacent base pairs?

a. methyl methane sulfonate
b. all of these
c. nitrous acid
d. 2-amino urine
e. acridine orange

20. A molecule of RNA is always

a. double stranded
b. helical
c. nonparallel
d. all of these
e. none of these

21. Mutagenesis of cells using radiation or a chemicalintercalating agent could be used to create __________ mutations ina region of DNA.

a. random
b. both random and site-specific
c. site-specific

22. In Griffiths’s tranformation experiments, the mice died whenthey were injected with

a. living, no virulent bacteria
b. living, virulent bacteria
c. heat-killed, no virulent bacteria
d. living, nonvirulent bacteria
e. both B and D

23. A monoploid human cells

a. shows only the excessive phenotype of all these genes
b. would be functionally impaired
c. is normal
d. would not survive

24. Gametes containing an abnormal number of chromosomes may occuras a result of

a. paracentric inversion
b. reciprocal translocation
c. disjunction of chromosomes
d. unequal crossing over

25. DNA may be altered as a result of _____________ events thatoccur normally in cells

a. depurination
b. deamination
c. depyrimidation
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

26. Which enzyme prevents DNA from tangling up as the replicationfork migrates during replication?

a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA helicase
c. topoisonmerase
d. DNA polymerase III
e. DNA gyrase

27. Which of the following enzymes play an important role in DNAreplication?

a. DNA helicase
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA primase
d. all of them
e. DNA polymerase III

28. A mutation gene sustains a mutation that restores the originalphenotype, This is a

a. frame shift mutation
b. transversion
c. reversion
d. transition
e. forward mutation

29. A dicentric chromosome has two

a. telomeres
b. mutations
c. arms
d. centromeres

30. Which type of chromosomal mutation cannot revert to thewild-type state

a. duplication
b. deletion
c. translocation
d. both A and C
e. all of them

31. Translation of histone mRNAs occurs during which phase of theeukaryotic cell cycle?

a. M
b. G1
c. G2
d. S
e. all of these

32. After removal of the RNA primers, Okazaki fragments are joinedthrough a reaction that involves which enzyme?

a. RNA polymerase
b. DNA helicase
c. DNA polymerase
d. DNA primase
e. DNA ligase

33. Which of the following is required for the synthesis of DNAduring replication?

a. DNA polymerase
b. magnesium ions
c. all of them
d. template DNA
e. dNTPs

34. Most of the genome of an active cell consists of

a. heterochromatin
b. histochromatin
c. poluchromatin
d. euchromatin

35. In eukaryotes, DNA replication begins,

a. a single origin of replication on each chromosome
b. a single origin of replication on each chromosome
c. multiple origins of replication on each chromosome
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

36. A human cell contains 2 sets of 24 chromosomes is

a. euploid
b. haploid
c. polyploid
d. aneuploid

37. Pseudodominance occurs as a result of which type ofmutation?

a. translocation
b. duppolication
c. all of these
d. point mutation
e. deletion

38. The enzymatic activity of a telomerase is best described asa

a. none of these
b. polymerase
c. ligase
d. reverse transcriptase
e. topoisomerase

39. A Barr body is an example of

a. constitutive heterochromatin
b. facultative heterochromatin
c. facultative euchromatin
d. constitutive euchromatin

40. An addition or deletion of one or two base pairs in a genecauses a ____________ mutation

a. Transition
b. frameshift
c. nonsense
d. transversion
e. neutral

41. A heterozygous chromosomal inversion can be detected

a. by cytogenetic observation of loops in chromosomes
b. through genetic studies indicating a decrease in the frequencyof recombination between genes
c. by observing a decrease in the number of viable progenyfollowing genetic crosses
d. all of the above

42. The mutagen 5-bromouracil is an analog of which base?

a. adenine
b. threonine
c. thymine
d. cystosine
e. uracil

43. A mutation that changes a codon from one that represents anamino acid to one that signals a chain termination is a______________ mutation.

a. neutral
b. missense
c. frame shift
d. nonsense

44. A chromosomal mutation that results in an increase in theamount of DNA is a(n)

a. duplication
b. inversion
c. deletion
d. both A and C
e. all of the above

45. Prior to replication, the DNA double helix must be untwisted bywhich type of enzyme?

a. topoisomerase
b. ligase
c. polymerase
d. helicase
e. primase

46. In his transformation experiments, Griffiths used cultures ofwhich bacterium?

a. Sacchromyces cerevisiae
b. Escherichia coli
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
d. Bacillus cereus
e. Eneterococcus faecalis

47. A mutation changes a codon from a UCG to a UAG. This is a____________ mutation?

a. point
b. nonsense
c. silent
d. both A and B
e. all of the above

48. In eukaryotes, DNA replication

a. is initiated at several sites on chromosomes
b. occurs bidirectional
c. is semidiscontinuous
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

49. Which of the following bacteria are used in the Amestest?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Escherichia coli
c. Vibrio cholera
d. Salmonella typhimurium
e. Rickettsia rickettsii

50. Which of the following changes represents a missensemutation?

a. UGA (stop) to UAG (stop)
b. AAA (lysine) to AGA (arginine)
c. UUU (phenylalanine) to UAA (stop)
d. AUG (methionine) to UGA (stop)
e. AAA (lysine) to AAG (lysine)