BIOL2202 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Peptide, Amine, Ames Test

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blueclam798

13 Aug 2018

School

Department

Biology

Course

BIOL2202

Professor

James Fraser

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Document Summary

Tautomeric shifts during replication: the parental dna and how the replicated dna should look like in the end, as dna is replicating, g undergoes tautomeric shift. Dna polymerase binds g to a t because they can bond: g and t will not be a great fit and there will be a lesion in the 1st generation strand. Sometimes, this will be fixed by repair mechanism (everything back to normal ) Sometimes, it may not be fixed by repair mechanism : dna undergoes second round of replication. If the g-t was unrepaired, the 2nd generation strand will have wrong base. The strand with the g will go back to normal when paired with c. The strand with the t will be paired with a. Instead of a purine, there is another purine (t c) Instead of a pyrimidine, there is another pyrimidine (a g: above example of how g c becomes a t is a transition substitution.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1

A mutation caused by exposure to gamma rays is called a spontaneous mutation

	a.	True
	b.	False
	c.	Sometimes, depending on the type of base change
	d.	Gamma rays do not cause mutations

QUESTION 2

A recessive mutation affecting an essential biochemical pathway can be detected________

	a.	when the organism is heterozygous for that mutation.
	b.	when the organism is homozygous for that mutation.
	c.	in either homozygous or heterozygous conditions.
	d.	only by sequencing (recessive mutations never show a phenotype).

QUESTION 3

During DNA replication, the newly synthesized chain grows by adding

	a.	nitrogenous bases
	b.	the sugar-phosphate backbone
	c.	nucleosides
	d.	dNTPs

QUESTION 4

During replication, the DNA strand 5â- AAGTCTAGCCTAG -3â will serve as a template for the polymerization of:

	a.	5â- CTAGGCTAGACTT -3â
	b.	5â - TTCAGATCGGATC -3â
	c.	5â - GATCCGATCTGAA -3â
	d.	3â - AAGTCTAGCCTAG -5â

QUESTIOn 5

Given the following DNA sequences, select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

Sequence 1:

5â-TGGACGCTAA-3â

3â-ACCTGCGATT-5â

Sequence 2:

5â-AATCGCAGGT-3â

3â-TTAGCGTCCA-5â

Sequence 3:

5â-ACCTGCGATT-3â

3â-TGGACGCTAA-5â

	a.	Sequences 1 and 2 are the same
	b.	Sequences 1 and 3 are the same
	c.	Sequences 2 and 3 are the same
	d.	Sequences 1, 2 and 3 are all different

QUESTION 6

Repetitive sequences in the genome are hotspots for:

	a.	Deamination
	b.	Depurination
	c.	Thymine dimer formation
	d.	Replication errors

QUESTION 7

Select which statement(s) about the Ames test is(are) correct

	a.	it has been designed to understand mutation repair systems in Salmonella typhimurium
	b.	it uses mammalian liver extract
	c.	it allows to study whether chemical compounds or their enzymatic breakdown products are mutagenic
	d.	it is based on whether a chemical compound causes reversion mutations from his+ to his-
	e.	two of the above are correct
	f.	three of the above are correct

QUESTION 8

Select which statement(s) is(are) correct.

	a.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by the carbons in the sugar backbone.
	b.	All DNA strands have a direction, and it is specified by hydrogen bonds between nucleotides.
	c.	In order to form proper base pairs in a double stranded DNA molecule, the two strands must run in opposite directions.
	d.	A and C are correct.
	e.	B and C are correct.

QUESTION 9

Studies of gene mutation frequencies have shown that:

	a.	mutations are rare, and genomes are generally stable.
	b.	mutation frequencies differ among organisms and also between genes, suggesting certain genes are more susceptible to mutation.
	c.	mutation frequencies are consistent between organisms, and each region of DNA is equally susceptible to random mutations.
	d.	Both A and B are correct.
	e.	Both A and C are correct.

QUESTION 10

The compound 5-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) is a derivative of uracil, and if BrdU becomes incorporated during DNA replication, it pairs with adenine. This compound is best classified as which type of mutagen?

	a.	base analog
	b.	base inducer
	c.	intercalating agent
	d.	oxidative agent
	e.	alkylating agent

QUESTION 11

The rate of mutation of the fruit fly is higher than the rate of mutation of Algae

True

False

QUESTION 12

Thymine dimers are most commonly caused by which of the following?

	a.	X-rays
	b.	Alkylating agents
	c.	U.V. irradiation
	d.	DNA intercalating agents

QUESTION 13

What chemical group is found in the 3â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 14

What chemical group is found in the 5â end of a DNA strand?

	a.	an alcohol
	b.	a hydroxyl
	c.	a methyl
	d.	a phosphate

QUESTION 15

Which is the correct order of molecules binding to DNA during DNA replication?

	a.	Helicase, SSB, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase
	b.	SSB, DNA pol I, ligase, helicase, DNA pol I, primase
	c.	primase, helicase, DNA pol III, ligase, DNA pol I, SSB
	d.	SSB, helicase, primase, DNA pol III, DNA pol I, ligase

QUESTION 16

Which statement(s) is(are) correct about strand slippage?

	a.	It can cause disorders such as Huntingon disease.
	b.	It is a process that causes mutations altering the number of DNA repeats.
	c.	It is a process that incorporates nucleotide base analogs and trinucleotide repeats.
	d.	a and b are correct.
	e.	b and c are correct.
	f.	a, b and c are correct.

help needed asap.

chocolatesea-lion434

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)	Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)	Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)	In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)	In all species A + T = G + C.

E)	DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)	the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)	Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)	Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)	Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)	A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)	Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)	Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)	Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)	When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)	None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)	DNA ligase

B)	Restriction endonuclease

C)	Reverse transcriptase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)	Reverse transcriptase

B)	Alkaline phosphatase

C)	DNA ligase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)	Alkaline phosphatase

B)	Reverse transcriptase

C)	Restriction endonuclease

D)	DNA ligase

E)	DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)	An origin of replication

B)	A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)	Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)	Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)	All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)	Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)	cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)	Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)	Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)	cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

dNTPs

B)	DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)	DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)	Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)	Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)	Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)	Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)	Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)	Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)	A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)	The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)	The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)	It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)	The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)	It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)	Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)	Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)	Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)	A and B might work.

E)	A, B, and C might work.

F)	None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)	The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)	A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)	Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)	Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)	The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

3 Gm

300 Kb

3 Mb

3 Gb

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)	Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)	Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)	Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)	Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)	Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

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BIOL2202 Lecture Notes - Lecture 5: Peptide, Amine, Ames Test

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