BIOL308 Lecture 5: Lecture 5

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blackraccoon804

8 Apr 2016

School

University of Waterloo

Department

Biology

Course

BIOL308

Professor

Bruce Wolff

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Document Summary

Slipped or cruciform structures can form if there are repeated sequences in the dna. Formed when purines make up one strand and pyrimidines the other, then a third strand can be accommodated: in test tube, but also likely in vivo during dna recombination or repair, gene therapy possibilities. Inclination of base normal to helix axis (degrees) Adopted from: dickerson, r. e. , et al. (1982) the anatomy of a-, b-, and z-dna. Action of agents that denature dna vs. forces that keep dna strands together. What factors affect the tm of a dna fragment. What can be learned from studying the kinetics of renaturation. What are the different classes of dna sequences in eukaryote genomes and their varying proportions. Two sequences that are not complementary will not hybridize. Two dna molecules (one missing part a) previously denatured by heating. Renatured dna: two wild type molecules and two hybrid molecules. Tm: melting temperature temperature at which 50% of the dna is denatured.

Related Questions

Multiple choice questions, I need the CORRECT ANSWERS, 3500points

1.The promoter is in region_____________.

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.5

2.The stop codon is identified in region __________

a.4

b.5

c.6

d.7

e.8

3.A mutation is region 8 would be expected to:

a.disrupt transcription

b.disrupt ribosome

c.disrupt DNA polymerase binding

d.disrupt splicing

e.none of the above

4.Which is responsible for the transcription of structural genesin eukaryotes?

a.RNA polymerase I

b.RNA polymerase II

c.RNA polymerase III

d.DNA polymerase

E.RNA Synthesis

5.The eukaryotic TATA box is directly bound by a basaltranscription factor known as:

a.TBF

b.TBP

c.TAF

D.TPP

E.TAT

6.mOST TRANSCRIPTIONAL ACTIVATOR proteins in eukarypotesfunction in the cell as:

a.monomers

b.dimers

c.trimers

d.tetramers

e.pentamers

7.The basal level of transcription of eukaryotic genes is quitehigh in vitro systems. This is because:

a.activation are present

b.formation of chromatin dos not occur in vitro

c.basal transcription factors are present

d.a and c

e.none of the above

8.Transcriptional repression by methylation of DNA involves:

a.methylation of adenine (A) bases of the sequence GATC

b.methylation of cytosine (C) bases of th sequence GATC

c.mthylation of cytosin (C) bases in CpG nuclotides

d.Methylation of guanosine (G) bases in CpG nucleotides

e.acetylation of hisone proteins

9.A eukaryotic DNA sequence that can increase the level oftranscription is called:

a. a transcription factor

b.a transcritpional activator

c.TATA box

d.an enhancer

e.a co-activator

10.Which is generally true of eukaryotic transcriptionalregulation?

a.activators and reprssors bind to the promoter while basalfactors bind to the enhances

b.basal factors bind to the promoter, while activators bind tothe enhancers

c.activators bind to the promoter while basal factors andrprssors bind to th enhancers

d.repressors bind to the promoter whil basal factors andactivators bind to the enhancers

e.activators and basal factors bind to the promtoer whilereprssors bind to the enhancers

11.You wish to sequence the promoters region of the mouse generab.To do this, you need to construct a library and then search forthe gene sequence.You have a DNA probe based on the sequence of theprotein coding region.Which of th follwoing strategies would youfollow in order to carry this out?

A.construct a genomic library and screen for the promoter usingPCR

b.construct a cDNA library and screen for the promotoer usingPCR

c.construct a genomic library and screen for the promoter usingPCR

d.Construct a cDNA library and screen for the promoter usingcolony hybridization

e.all of the above

12.if one were to examine th clones in a cDNA library derivedfrom th heart muscle cells and the clones in a cDNA library derivdfrom prancreatic cells, you would find that:

a.the two libraries would hav the same cloned sequences

b.the two libraries would have completely different clonesequences from one another

c.the two libraries would share some common clond sequences, butwould each have some sequences unique to that library, not to befound in the other

d.the sequences from both would also b the same as those foundin the genomic library

e.none of th above

13.In a particular population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, thefrequency of recssive allele b for a particular gne is0.01.Assuming that there are only two alleles for the gene, whatwould b th expected frequency for dominant allele B in th nextgeneration?

a.0.01

b.0.02

c.0.98

d.0.99

e.none of the above

14.White wool in the sheep is controlled by a dominant allele R,and black wool by the recessive allele r.In an isolated popualtionof 6530 sheep, 514 are balck, 4981 are hterozygous, 1035 arhomozygous white. When will this population be expected to reachHardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a.in the next generation

b.in two generations

c.it already is in equilibrium

d.impossible to tell

e.it will not reach equilibrium

15.A population has th following genotypic disturbutions:

A^M A^M=1787, A^M A^O=2011, A^OA^O=2331.Is this population atH-W equilibrium?

a.yes, with allele frequencies of p=0.45562 and q=0.54437

b.yes, with frequencies of p=0.54437 and q=0.37862

c.no, with allele frequencies of p=0.45562 and q=0.37862

d.no, with xpectd genotypic ratios of p^2=1272, 2pq=3040, andq^2=1826

e.yes, with expctd genotypic frequencies of p^2=1778, 2pq=2015,and q^2=2336

16.The result of the Luria-Delbruck fluctuation exprimentindicatd that:

a. most bacteria are naturally resistant to phage

b.a low level of bacteria become resistant to phage by mutationupon exposure to phage

c.most bacteria become resistant to phage by mutation uponexposure to phag

d.bacteria become resistant to phag by random spontaneousmutation

e.bacteria become resistant to phag by acquiring resistanttraists upon repeated exposure

17.DNA probes are used for:

a.restriction ndonuclease analysis

b.sequencing

c.PCR

d.DNA library analysis

e.all of th above

18.Colony hybridization is used to:

a.isloate a gne of interest froma DNA library

b.analyze the presence or number of copies of a particular DNAsegment in a chromosome

c.determine the size of a gene or sequencing of interest

d.replace the more tediuos method of library screening.

e.all of the above

19.For the colony hybridization procedure, which of thefollowing is true:

a.individual colonies are isolated and analyzed by DNAsequencing

b.the DNA fragments are separated by size prior to transfer ontonitrocellulose membrane

c.the plasmid DNA must be denatured before hybridization

d.the relative positions of DNA fragments on the agarose gel arepreserved after transfer to the nitrocllulose membrane

e.the cloned target sequence is detected by staining withthidium bromide

20.The following strand of DNA is to be used for sequencing3'CGACTGACTCGACGGCCTAGCTATAG.The primer is GCTGACTG.The number ofDNA fragments resulting from the ddCTP tube is expectd to be:

a.7

b.5

c.8

d.4

e.6

21.Which of the following is not true of heterozygosity for agene deletion?

a.it is often detrimental if there is a gene dosage effect.

b.as long as one wildtype copy of any deleted gene is presnt onthe homologous chromosome, no phenotypic consequnces willresult.

c.it could be detected by Southern blot analysis

d.it could be detected by PCR analysis

e.none of the above

22.Robertsonian translocation arise from:

a.breaks at or near the chromosome of two acrocentricchromosomes

b.breaks at or near th centromeres of two metacentricchromosomes

c.breaks at or near th centromeres of one acrocentric and onemetacentric chromosome

d.breaks in a large and a small chromosomes

e.transposable elements

puceshark206

Question 2

The DSM-IV describes an "Eating Disorder Not OtherwiseSpecified" as:

self-starvation that leads to severe nutrient deficiencies

compulsive eating disorder

a variety of atypical eating behaviors used to maintain or lowerbody weight

recurrent episodes of extreme overeating followed byself-induced vomiting

Question 3

The nutrition paradox refers to:

coexistance of underweight and obesity in the same region

too mucn vitamin A in foods rich in vitamin C

poor countries that have excessive rates of obesity

obese children from nonobese parents

Question 4

Which of the following represents a nutrition transition?

decreased reliance on carbohydrates

increased consumption of sugar

increased availibility of maize over corn

lower-fat subsistence crops

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT part of the GOBI initiative?

breast-feeding

obesity control

immunization

growth monitoring

Question 6

Which of the following is a response to the drawbacks of theGreen Revolution?

WIC

high yield varities of grains

sustainable agriculture

biotechnology

Flag this Question

Question 70.5 pts

Worldwide, the major cause of undernutrition is:

unequal distribution of food

diseases (like AIDS)

poor farming practices

overpopulation

Question 8

Which agency monitors all confirmed causes of food-borneillness?

EPA

FDA

CDC

USDA

Question 9

In which of the following environments does Clostridiumbotulinum flourish?

acidic

alkaline

<40 degrees F

> 140 degrees F

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of food intoxication?

Norwalk virus

Salmonella

hepatitis A

Clostridium botulinum

Question 11

All of the following describe characteristics of the femaleathlete triad EXCEPT

menstrual dysfunction

disordered eating

hypertension

osteoporosis

Question 12

Impulsive, low self-esteem, seeks attention, extroverted, anderratic describe personality traits of:

bulemia nervosa

binge-eating disorder

obesity

anorexia nervosa

Question 13

Obsessive-compulsive, perfectionism, socially inhibited,compliant, and emotionally restrained describe personality traiatsof

binge-eating disorder

anorexia nervosa

bulimia nervosa

obesity

Question 14

The Institute of Medicine recommends a minimum of ________minutes of physical activity each day for adults.

Question 15

Regular exercise reduces the risk of type 2 diabetes by all butwhich of the following?

decreases the cellular uptake of blood glucose

delays the onset of complications of type 2 diabetes

increases control of blood glucose

enhances the action of insulin

Question 16

What is meant by the overload principle?

stretching a muscle group beyond the joint's healthy range ofmotion

improving fitness by placing extra physical demand on thebody

complete depletion of the body's glycogen

subjecting the body to inappropriately high stress

Question 17

The acronym FIT stands for:

fatigue, intensity, and training.

flexibility, increase, and training.

fitness, increase, and time.

frequency, intensity, and time.

Question 18

To achieve cardiorespiratory fitness it is recommended thattraining should occur ________.

3-5 days a week

daily

more than 5 days a week

2-3 days a week

Question 19

To achieve and maintain physical fitness, exercise intensityshould be ________ of the maximal heart rate.

35-50%

15-25%

25-30%

50-80%

Question 20

In which of the following types of exercise would CP (creatinephosphate) be an important source of energy?

biking up a mountain

sprinting in the 100-meter race

running a 10-kilometer road race

playing in a football game

Question 21

Which is NOT an advantage of aerobic metabolism over anaerobicmetabolism?

Much more energy is produced for every fuel molecule.

Aerobic metabolism acts more quickly.

Harmful metabolites do not accumulate as quickly.

A greater fuel supply is available.

Question 22

An unwanted effect of an overly vigorous warm-up is:

increased muscle temperature.

glycogen depletion.

increased body temperature.

reduced stress levels.

Question 23

Each day Bill power-walks for 45 minutes. Which fuel source(s)provide(s) energy during this activity?

amino acids

glucose

fatty acids

fatty acids and glucose

Question 24

The main disadvantage of using fat as a fuel is:

the body's limited storage capability.

its low energy density.

its slow metabolic breakdown.

the limitation of anaerobic metabolism.

Question 25

Joseph plays basketball for his high school team and he isconcerned that he is not consuming enough kilocalories to supporthis activity. Which of the following would be the best indicatorthat he is not consuming adequate kilocalories?

His hemoglobin is low.

His blood glucose levels are low.

His performance has been impaired.

He is losing weight.

Question 26

Rachel is a gymnast who trains 2 hours/day on average. Shesupports her daily activity by consuming 2,500 kilocalories perday. How many kilocalories should she be consuming fromcarbohydrate sources?

1,500-1,625 kilocalories

1,125-1,300 kilocalories

1,300-1,500 kilocalories

1,625-1,750 kilocalories

Question 27

The best time to replenish glycogen stores is:

the day after exercising.

a few hours before exercising.

the day before exercising.

right after exercising.

Question 28

In which of the following events would carbohydrate loading bethe most beneficial?

cross country skiing

baseball game

weight lifting

100-yard dash

Question 29

Osteoporosis, eating disorders, dehydration, and heat illnessare all possible consequences of:

the Zone diet.

carbohydrate loading.

inadequate dietary intake.

overtraining.

Question 30

Which of the following is the most potentially harmful?

heat syncope

heatstroke

heat cramps

heat exhaustion

Question 31

Which of the following athletes would be LEAST likely to developiron deficiency anemia?

a female marathon runner

a male basketball player who is a vegan

a female gymnast

a male distance swimmer

Question 32

Amenorrhea, sometimes seen in female athletes, is:

the onset of menstruation.

osteoporosis.

the loss of the menstrual cycle.

frequent diarrhea.

Question 33

Some athletes believe that caffeine can enhance athleticperformance because it has been shown to:

increase the transport of amino acids to exercising muscle.

increase muscle flexibility and strength.

increase the use of fatty acids as a fuel source.

regenerate ATP for energy.

Question 34

Which of the following ergogenic aids has been shown to enhanceshort-term exercise and resistance training?

chromium picolinate

creatine

carnatine

ephedrine

Question 35

Consuming processed foods as opposed to whole foods decreasesthe risk of contracting a food-borne illness.

True

False

Question 36

Regular physical activity can increase HDL-cholesterol.

True

False

Question 37

Nearly 1 in 6 American adults reports getting no physicalactivity at all.

True

False

Question 38

Lactic acid is a by-product of high-intensity exercise.

True

False

Question 39

Training can enhance the ability to store glycogen.

True

False

Question 40

The primary fuel source utilized in both anaerobic and aerobicexercise is protein (amino acids).

True

False

Question 41

Studies suggest that athletes need to consume more than 2grams/kg of protein each day to maintain muscle strength.

True

False

Question 420.5 pts

Refigerating or freezing foods will kill any bacteria present inthe food.

True

False

Question 43

Most athletes do not consume enough protein to support theiradded physical activity.

True

False

Question 44

Thirst is a very reliable indicator of dehydration.

True

False

This includes showing all calculations and explaining why you selected a specific answer for each multiple choice question (i.e. donât just circle the correct answer). I am looking to see how you got the answer, not just that you have the correct answer.

Below is data from the United States Cancer Statistics about the number of news cases of lung cancer in males in the U.S. for 2011 for ages 30 and older.

Table 1: U.S. Population Size and Incidence Cases of Lung Cancer in Males for 2011

Age (Years)	U.S. Male Population	White Population	White Incidence Cases	Black Population	Black Incidence Cases
30-34	10,181,564	7,950,924	88	1,383,650	22
35-39	9,666,162	7,557,263	212	1,271,897	23
40-44	10,363,126	8,259,215	643	1,324,847	132
45-49	10,856,131	8,766,225	2,032	1,373,346	444
50-54	10,976,172	9,004,383	5,128	1,329,551	1,148
55-59	9,733,849	8,101,629	8,607	1,091,030	1,687
60-64	8,466,308	7,183,960	12,340	845,362	2,067
65-69	6,014,777	5,178,255	15,792	539,796	2,077
70-74	4,360,942	3,769,569	16,011	376,129	1,864
75-79	3,204,196	2,807,216	14,319	255,221	1,426
80-84	2,319,839	2,078,071	11,284	154,155	883
85+	1,873,942	1,688,433	7,616	117,267	545
Total	88,017,008	72,345,143	94,072	10,062,251	12,318

3. What is the age-specific incidence rate for lung cancer in white men age 75-79 for 2011?(1 pt)

0.005 per 1000

1.3 per 1000

1.2 per 1000

5.1 per 1000

5.6 per 1000

F. Cannot be calculated from the given information

4. What is the age-specific incidence rate for lung cancer in black men age 75-79 for 2011? (1 pt)

0.005 per 1000

1.3 per 1000

1.2 per 1000

5.1 per 1000

5.6 per 1000

F. Cannot be calculated from the given information

Questions 5 through 7 are based on the information below:

Using the information in Table 1, researchers calculated the crude incidence rates and age-adjusted incidence rates (via the direct method) for both groups.

Table 2: Crude incidence rates and age-adjusted incidence rates for white and black males

White Males		Black Males
Crude Incidence Rate	Age-adjusted Incidence Rate	Crude Incidence Rate	Age-adjusted Incidence Rate
1.3 per 1000	1.2 per 1000	1.2 per 1000	1.5 per 1000

5. True or False, there is likely a difference in the age composition between the white and black males. Explain your answer

6. Based on the information in Table 2, it was reported that there was an increased risk of lung cancer in black males in 2011. (1 pt)

The conclusion is:

Correct, the age-adjusted rate is higher in black males compared to white males

Correct, because both the crude and age-adjusted rates are higher in black males compared to white males

Incorrect, because the incidence rate for white males is actually higher than the incidence rate for black males

7. What type of age-adjusted rate was calculated in table 2? How does it differ from the age-adjusted rate in question 5 in the in-class exercise for age-adjustments? Hint: See slide title: Adjustments for Other Measures of Disease Frequency in the lecture title Adjusted Rates (1 pt)

Question 8 is based on the information given below:

Cause-specific mortality rates for men in 2010 in the U.S. from various types of cancers are shown in the table below:

Cause-Specific Mortality Rates

(per 100,000 Men)

Location of the Cancer

in the Body White Asian

Pancreas 13.2 5.7

Prostate 19.1 2.5

Lung 62.3 18.5

Skin 4.9 0.3

8. The inference that White men in the U.S. are at higher risk of death due to cancer of the pancreas, prostate, lung, and skin compared to Asian men in the U.S. is

A. correct

B. incorrect because of failure to determine cause-specific mortality rates

incorrect because proportionate mortality alone does not give an estimate of risk

D. incorrect because of failure to adjust for differences in the age composition of the two populations

E. incorrect because counts were used when cause-specific mortality rates were needed

9. In January 1996, a team of epidemiologists identified a sample of 4,500 men, 65-74 years of age, for a study of prostate cancer. Tests indicated that 315 of the men already had prostate cancer and, therefore, were not at risk. The rest of the men were followed prospectively for five years to determine the incidence rate of prostate cancer in the sample. By the end of the five years of follow-up 156 of the men had developed prostate cancer. What is the incidence rate of prostate cancer in this group?

10. An epidemiologic investigation that started on January 1, 2011, identified a population of 1,000 individuals. At the start of the study 4 were found to have the disease. During the year of study, 6 new cases were found; thus a total of 10 cases were identified. Among those 10 cases, 6 deaths occurred during the year. What was the prevalence of the disease during the 1-year study?

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BIOL308 Lecture 5: Lecture 5

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