ADMS 3541 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Retained Earnings, Income Statement, Human Capital
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Making Long Term FM Decisions - Integrative Case
Introduction: As a special analytical group set up by ACME Iron by the firmâs Controller, you have been tasked to respond to the following issues raised in a meeting with the CFO.
You must look over several prospective financial strategies to aid in the successful growth of ACME Iron: Capital investment analysis; CAPM â Capital Asset Pricing Model determination for the company; WACC â Weighted Average Cost of Capital computations; EVA â Economic Value Analysis; MVA â Market Value Added; Capital structure of the company; Dividend policy; Stock repurchase and option pricing strategy; Bankruptcy risk analysis; Decision Tree Creation; Real option analysis of projects
The CFO wants to test you out on a simple project in the first task before you get into preparing items for his board presentation in subsequent tasks and projects. He wants to see how well you perform tasks as well as how accurate and thoughtful you are in your work. Details are important to him as well as good organization/presentation and communication.
Financial Statements for use on Tasks
ACME Iron | Balance Sheet | ||
Assets | |||
Current assets: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Cash | 500,000 | 600,000 | 100,000 |
Investments | 1,000,000 | 1,025,000 | 25,000 |
Inventories | 110,000,000 | 117,000,000 | 7,000,000 |
Accounts receivable | 11,750,000 | 12,500,000 | 750,000 |
Pre-paid expenses | 2,500,000 | 2,600,000 | 100,000 |
Other | 0 | 0 | - |
Total current assets | 125,750,000 | 133,725,000 | 7,975,000 |
Fixed assets: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Property and equipment | 165,000,000 | 175,000,000 | 10,000,000 |
Leasehold improvements | 0 | 0 | - |
Equity and other investments | 55,000,000 | 65,000,000 | 10,000,000 |
Less accumulated depreciation | 15,000,000 | 15,500,000 | 500,000 |
Total fixed assets | 235,000,000 | 255,500,000 | 20,500,000 |
Other assets: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Goodwill | 75,000,000 | 70,000,000 | (5,000,000) |
Total other assets | 75,000,000 | 70,000,000 | (5,000,000) |
Total assets | 435,750,000 | 459,225,000 | 23,475,000 |
Liabilities and owner's equity | |||
Current liabilities: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Accounts payable | 40,500,000 | 42,400,000 | 1,900,000 |
Accrued wages | 85,000,000 | 90,500,000 | 5,500,000 |
Accrued compensation | 10,000,000 | 10,855,000 | 855,000 |
Income taxes payable | 4,024,000 | 4,697,000 | 673,000 |
current portion of LT debt | 5,500,000 | 10,350,000 | 4,850,000 |
Other | 0 | 0 | - |
Total current liabilities | 145,024,000 | 158,802,000 | 13,778,000 |
Long-term liabilities: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Long term debt | 125,000,000 | 130,000,000 | 5,000,000 |
Total long-term liabilities | 125,000,000 | 130,000,000 | 5,000,000 |
Owner's equity: | 2014 | 2015 | change |
Common stock | 122,000,000 | 122,000,000 | - |
Preferred stock | 16,725,000 | 16,725,000 | - |
Accumulated retained earnings | 27,001,000 | 31,698,000 | 4,697,000 |
Total owner's equity | 165,726,000 | 170,423,000 | 4,697,000 |
Total liabilities and owner's equity | 435,750,000 | 459,225,000 | 23,475,000 |
Income Statement
ACME Iron
December 2015
Financial Statements in '000s of U.S. Dollars
REVENUE | ||
Gross Sales | 250,000 | |
Less: Sales Returns & Allowances | 2,500 | |
Net Sales | 247,500 | |
COST OF GOODS SOLD | ||
Beginning Inventory | 7,500 | |
Add: Purchases | 4,500 | |
Freight-in | 0 | |
Direct Labor | 75,000 | |
Indirect Expenses | 15,000 | |
Inventory Available | 102,000 | |
Less: Ending Inventory | ||
Cost of Goods Sold | 102,000 | |
Gross Profit (Loss) | 145,500 | |
EXPENSES | ||
Advertising | 7,500 | |
Amortization | 0 | |
Bad Debts | 5,000 | |
Depreciation | 500 | |
Dues and Subscriptions | 0 | |
Employee Benefit Programs | 18,750 | |
Insurance | 2,500 | |
Interest | 10,350 | |
Legal & Professional Fees | 100 | |
Licenses & Fees | 0 | |
Miscellaneous | 10 | |
Office Expenses | 100 | |
Payroll Taxes | 5,625 | |
Postage | 3 | |
Rent | 0 | |
Repairs & Maintenance | 5,000 | |
Supplies | 2,000 | |
Telephone | 120 | |
Travel | 1,750 | |
Utilities | 50,000 | |
Vehicle Expenses | 450 | |
Wages | 25,000 | |
Total Expenses | 134,758 | |
Net Operating Income | 10,742 | |
OTHER INCOME | ||
Gain (Loss) on Sale of Assets | 0 | |
Interest Income | 1,000 | |
Total Other Income | 1,000 | |
TAXES | 4,697 | |
Net Income (Loss) | 7,045 |
TASK 2
In this task we are examining the current capital structure of ACME Iron and determining the WACC of the company. Assume that ACMEâs tax rate is 40%.
To compute the WACC you must first find the after-tax cost of debt, the cost of equity and the proportions of debt and equity in the firm. You can assume that the cost of debt before tax is 8% for the firm. Please clearly show how you derive each of these values:
After-tax cost of debt =
Cost of equity =
Proportions of debt and equity in the firm =
How do we compute the WACC in this circumstance? Why do we need to be concerned with the WACC?
Any insights into the capital structure of ACME Iron?
The weighted average cost of capital is the weighted average of the cost of equity and the after-tax cost of debt. Another way of looking at this is computing the effect of the capital structure on expected returns by investors.
WACC= S/B+S x Rs + B/B+S x RB x (1 â tc )
Where
S = value of equity
B = value of debt
Rs = cost of equity
After tax cost of debt: RB x (1 â tc )
Helpful Hint: One thing to bring up here is WACC is needed to determine risk on several levels. To determine risk we need to remember the following items:
1. Risk is deviation from expectations.
2. We need to set expectations for our investments in relation to risk and return. Higher risk = higher return.
3. Capital is obtained from the marketplace in two forms; equity and debt. This is the capital structure of a corporation and impacts the profits of a company depending on how this is managed.
4. We use our cost of capital to discount any cash flows from new investments (NPV and IRR analysis).
5. If cost of capital rises then our risk rises and the projects we undertake to increase sales and return to our investors is reduced.
6. If debt rises then our obligation to make payments on interest increases and profits can decrease if sales do not increase rapidly enough.
7. If risk increases our beta will increase to show the increase in risk. This will increase our required rate of return to stockholders (CAPM) and thus increase our required rate of return we must use in discounting future cash flows.
TASK 3
Acme is planning construction of a new loading ramp for its single iron mill. The initial cost of the investment is $1 million. Efficiencies from the new ramp are expected to reduce costs by $100,000 for the life of the plant which is currently estimated at another 30 years.
When will this project break-even on a simple cash basis and a discounted cash basis.
What is the NPV of the project if Acme has an after tax cost of debt of 8% and a cost equity of 12% (they are currently funded equally by debt and equity)?
Helpful Hint: The first step in conducting an NPV analysis is to include all the relevant cash flows. This includes savings from taxes and any expenses directly related to the venture. We reject any project with a negative NPV.
TRUE / FALSE
1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,
investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.
2. True False When C + Ig = GDP in a private closed economy, S = Ig and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.
3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.
4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.
5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.
6. True False The M2 money supply may be larger or smaller than the M1 money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.
7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.
8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.
9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.
10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:
A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.
B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.
C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.
D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.
12. The multiplier effect indicates that:
A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.
B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.
C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.
D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.
13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?
- There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.
B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.
C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.
D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.
14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:
A. 18 percent.
B. 24 percent.
C. 12 percent.
D. 6 percent.
15.
Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:
A. $400.
B. $300.
C. $200.
D. $100.
16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?
A. a $10 billion tax cut
B. a $10 billion increase in government spending
C. a $10 billion tax increase
D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending
17.
Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:
A. private economy.
B. private open economy.
C. mixed closed economy.
D. mixed open economy.
18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:
A. counted as part of M1.
B. counted as part of M2, but not M1.
C. only counted as part of M1 if it was deposited into a checking account.
D. not counted as part of the money supply.
19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:
A. the multiplier to decrease.
B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.
C. the country's net exports to rise.
D. the country's net exports to fall.
20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:
A. level of bank credit.
B. level of income.
C. interest rate.
D. price level.
21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:
A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.
B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.
C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.
D. 1/MPS.
22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?
A. a change in the price level
B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar
C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level
D. an increase in personal income tax rate
23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:
A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.
B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.
C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full
employment.
D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.
24. The aggregate supply curve:
A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.
B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.
C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.
D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.
25.
Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P1, then:
A. aggregate demand is AD2.
B. the equilibrium output level is Q3.
C. the equilibrium output level is Q2.
D. producers will supply output level Q1
26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:
A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.
B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.
C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.
D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.
27.
Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?
A. T4
B. T3
C. T2
D. T1
28.
Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C1 to C2 might be caused by a(n):
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29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:
A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.
B. is decreased.
C. is increased.
D. may either increase or decrease.
30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:
A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.
B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.
C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.
D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.
31.
Refer to the above information. Money supply M1 for this economy is:
A. $ 60.
B. $ 70.
C. $ 130.
D. $ 140.
32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?
- From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.
B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.
C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.
D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.
33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?
- holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks
B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government
C. controlling the supply of money
D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks
34. In a fractional reserve banking system:
A. bank panics cannot occur.
B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.
C. banks can create money through the lending process.
D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.
35. |
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36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:
Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?
A. $ 3,000
B. $ 24,000
C. $ 6,000
D. $ 16,000
37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:
Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:
A. $0.
B. $1,000.
C. $5,000.
D. $30,000.
38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?
A. open market operations
B. changes in banking laws
C. changes in tax rates
D. changes in government spending
39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:
A. interest rates will rise.
B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.
C. bond prices will fall.
D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.
40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:
At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:
A. $500.
B. $480.
C. $460.
D. $440.
41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:
A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.
B. diversifiable risk and time preference.
C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.
D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.
42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:
A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.
B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.
C. state chartered commercial banks only.
D. federally chartered commercial banks only.
43.
Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE1to AE2 would:
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44. The discount rate is the interest:
A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.
B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.
C. yield on long-term government bonds.
D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.
45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?
A. present value
B. future value
C. compound interest
D. real rate of interest
46. The aggregate demand curve:
A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.
B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.
C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.
D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.
47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:
A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.
B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.
C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.
D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.
48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:
A. of the same risk level to have the same price.
B. to have the same expected rate of return.
C. to have the same beta.
D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.
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50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:
A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.
B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.
C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.
D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.
END OF THE EXAM