ADMS 3520 Lecture Notes - Lecture 10: Tax Avoidance, Tax Deferral, Income Statement

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taupedog644

3 Oct 2017

School

York University

Department

Administrative Studies

Course

ADMS 3520

Professor

Joe Frankovic

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Document Summary

Lecture 10: basic rules for partners and partnerships, part iv tax and personal services. Refundable part i and part iv tax. Note: for purposes of this course, you are not responsible for material relating to foreign taxes as it pertains to refundable taxes. Refundable part i tax on investment income [13-25 to 13-42] and [13-48 to 13-67] Additional refundable tax (art) is a refundable tax on the investment income of a ccpc. It is equal to 10-2/3 percent of the lesser of: The corporation"s aggregate investment income for the year; and. The amount, if any, by which the corporation"s taxable income exceeds the amount eligible for the small business deduction. Aggregate investment income see definition in ctp 13-25 to 13-27. Makes it less attractive to keep investment income within the corporate structure in order to defer taxes (due to lower corporate tax rate).

Related Questions

1. The primary tool used by supply-side economists to eliminate macroeconomic problems is

A. the discount rate.

B. corporate tax rates.

C. government spending.

D. open market operations.

E. the reserve requirement.

2. When the Federal Reserve System buys government securities on the open market,

A. the money supply will decrease.

B. excess reserves at commercial banks will decrease.

C. excess reserves at commercial banks will increase.

D. interest rates will increase

3. One of the advantages of automatic stabilizers over discretionary fiscal policy is that automatic stabilizers

A. has a greater multiplier effect than discretionary policy.

B. is not subject to the time lag problems of discretionary policy.

C. does not produce a deficit during recessions as a discretionary policy does.

D. makes the actual budget a better reflection of the condition of the economy than the full-employment budget.

4. "I have promised to do everything in my power to reduce the federal deficit. That means reducing federal expenditures and, if necessary, increasing taxes. Under present conditions of full employment and steady prices, we can afford to bear the burden of this debt (i.e., pay off the debt) now instead of passing it on to our children and grandchildren."

If the policies of the Senator quoted above were adopted, what effects would be expected while these policies were being implemented?

A. higher inflation

B. increases imports

C. higher rates of economic growth

D. increased unemployment and idle capacity

5. An inflationary gap can be reduced or completely closed by

A. decreasing taxes while leaving government spending on goods and services unchanged.

B. decreasing government spending on goods and services while leaving taxes unchanged.

C. increasing government spending on goods and services while leaving taxes unchanged.

D. increasing both government spending on goods and services and taxes by the same amount.

6. Compared to fiscal policy, an advantage of monetary policy is its

A. greater flexibility.

B. highly selective impact on segments of the economy.

C. ability to eliminate cost-push inflation.

D. need for approval by Congress.

E. need for approval by the President.

7. An increase in government spending on goods and services which causes a budget deficit to exist

A. is always inflationary.

B. is more inflationary than equal increases in private spending.

C. is usually not inflationary when the economy is operating at its full-employment level of output.

D. will not necessarily cause serious inflation as long as there are unemployed resources in the economy.

8. Some analysts believe the tax cuts enacted during the President H.W. Bush administration represented a supply-side economic policy rather than a Keynesian fiscal policy because

A. the tax cuts were accompanied by decreases in interest rates.

B. the tax cuts were accompanied by increases in government spending.

C. the tax cuts were primarily aimed at upper-income groups and businesses.

D. the tax cuts were primarily aimed at middle income and lower-income groups.

9. When the federal government is stabilizing the economy by increasing taxes, monetary authorities should

A. take actions to decrease interest rates.

B. increase the supply of money.

C. buy government securities in the open market.

D. follow an expansionary money policy.

E. follow a contractionary money policy.

10. Suppose a commercial bank has demand deposits (checking accounts) of $400,000, actual reserves of $170,000, and a reserve requirement of 20%. This single commercial bank can lend a maximum of ______ and the banking system can increase loans by a maximum of ______

A. $90,000 and $450,000.
B. $90,000 and $360,000.
C. $90,000 and $170,000.
D. $170,000 and $450,000.

E. both can lend an unlimited amount.

11. Which of the following would most likely result if the federal government increased its spending without changing tax revenues during a period of full employment?

A. inflation

B. a recession

C. lower interest rates

D. a larger net exports deficit

12. Fiscal policy that emphasizes cutting taxes as a means of improving incentives to work, and invest would be characterized in aggregate demand - aggregate supply framework primarily a shift

A. left in the aggregate demand curve.

B. left in the aggregate supply curve.

C. right in the aggregate supply curve.

D. no shift in either the aggregate demand curve or the aggregate supply curve.

13. Which of the following will result in the greatest increase in aggregate expenditures/demand?

A. A $100 decrease in personal income taxes

B. A $100 increase in personal income taxes

C. A $100 increase in government expenditures

D. A $100 increase in government expenditures which is accompanied by a $100 increase in personal income taxes

E. Both A and C will have the same effect on aggregate expenditures

14. You are given the following information about aggregate demand for an economy: (1)consumption = $600 billion; (2) investment = $50 billion; (3) government purchases = $100 billion; and (4) net export = $20 billion. If the full-employment level of GDP for this economy is $720 billion, then what combination of actions would be most consistent to achieve full employment and stable prices?

A. an increase in government spending and taxes

B. decrease government spending and taxes

C. decrease government spending and increase taxes

D. increase government spending and decrease taxes

15. Advocates of fiscal policy agree that discretionary fiscal policy will stabilize the business cycle most when the federal government

A. continuously incurs budget deficits.

B. continuously runs budget surpluses.

C. balances its budget every year.

D. incurs budget deficits during recessions and budget surpluses during demand-pull inflations.

E. incurs budget surpluses during recessions and budget deficits during demand-pull inflations.

16. Discretionary fiscal policy that increases the government budget deficit has the same effect on equilibrium as

A. an increase in personal saving.

B. an increase in business investment.

C. a decrease in government spending.

D. a decrease in personal consumption expenditures

pearseal757

1. According to economists today, economic growth depends on:

1) resources.

2) technology.

3) institutions.

4) resources and technology.

5) resources, technology, and institutions.

2. Which of the following is FALSE?

1) Real-world observations shape economic theory.

2) Economic theory shapes policy decisions.

3) Policies affect real-world events.

4) Economic theory has no impact on real-world events.

5) None of these statements is false.

3. After the Great Depression, the main focus of macroeconomics was:

1) growth theory.

2) the study of business cycles.

3) the study of stock markets.

4) the study of why businesses fail.

4. The Solow Growth Model serves as a foundation of:

1) macroeconomic theory.

2) microeconomic theory.

3) growth theory.

4) all economic theory.

5. According to the Solow Growth Model, which of the following is/are the primary source(s) of economic growth?

A - Natural resources

B - Human capital

C - Physical capital

D - A and B

E - A and C

F- B and C

G- A, B, and C

6. According to the Solow Growth Model, the marginal product of capital is:

1) zero and increases as the quantity of capital increases

2) zero and decreases as the quantity of capital increases.

3) negative and increases as the quantity of capital increases.

4) negative and decreases as the quantity of capital increases.

5) positive and increases as the quantity of capital increases.

6) positive and decreases as the quantity of capital increases.

7. If building new capital is costless and the capital depreciation rate is zero, then an economy will reach a steady state in which the marginal product of capital is:

1) equal to zero.

2) greater than zero.

3) less than zero.

8. Which of the following is true for an economy before it reaches the steady-state?

1) Investment and net investment are both positive.

2) Investment is positive but net investment is zero.

3) Investment is zero but net investment is positive.

4) Investment and net investment are both zero.

9. The idea of convergence suggests that when underdeveloped nations begin to develop, they typically have _____________ growth rates as they catch up to the developed nations.

1) higher

2) lower

3) similar

4) very low

10. Which of the following is true after allowing for sustained technological advance in the Solow Growth Model?

I. The steady-state situation is avoidable.

II. The marginal product of each unit of capital will increase.

III. A diminishing marginal product is avoidable.

Only I only II

Only III

I and II

I and III

II and III

I, II, and III

11. What is the primary difference between the basic Solow model and the second Solow model?

1) The models are theoretically similar. The second Solow model is only more mathematically complex than the basic model.

2) The second Solow model allows for technological change, while the basic model doesn't.

3) The basic Solow model features diminishing returns, in contrast to the second model.

4) The marginal product eventually becomes zero in the basic model, while such a situation is avoidable in the second Solow model.

12. All of the following can result in economic growth except:

1) improved schools and colleges.

2) a boost in population growth.

3) a favorable climate.

4) an improved health care system.

13. Which of the following will result in a movement along with the aggregate production function?

I. a technological advancement

II. training of the workforce

III. an increase in the country's capital stock

I and II

I and III

II and III

I, II, and III

14. Which of the following is NOT true about technological change in the Solow model?

1) Technological change is random.

2) Technological change occurs exogenously.

3) Technological change is driven by the incentives of the innovators.

4) Technological change is not due to any inherent characteristics of the economy.

15. What is the key difference between the new growth theory and the growth theory as envisioned by Solow?

1) There is no difference; technological change is endogenous in both these theories.

2) There is no difference; technological change is exogenous in both these theories.

3) Technological change is endogenous in the new growth theory and exogenous in the Solow theory.

4) Technological change is exogenous in the new growth theory and endogenous in the Solow theory.

16. Which of the following was proposed by the new growth theory?

I. Capital resources cannot grow indefinitely.

II. Technological change is caused by factors inside the economy.

III. Technological changes are entirely unpredictable events.

IV. Institutions matter.

I and II

I and IV

II and IV

III and IV

I, II, III, and IV

17. All of the following except _____________ are barriers to natural growth.

1) corruption

2) political instability

3) high tax rates

4) free markets

5) All of these are barriers to natural growth.

18. Which of the following is supported by the modern growth theory?

A - Population growth is an obstacle to economic growth.

B - Competition encourages the discovery of new goods and services, which leads to economic growth.

C - A country can grow faster if it disengages itself from international trade with foreign nations.

D - Taxes should be abolished, as they hurt incentives necessary for economic growth.

All of these. A and B

A, B, and D

19. According to the new growth theory, the low living standards in many developing countries can be explained by a lack of:

A - natural resources.

B - free markets.

C - sound institutions.

D - strong military resources.

all of these.

B and C.

A and D.

erinbuffalo510

TRUE / FALSE

1. True False In the aggregate expenditures model presented in the textbook,

investment is assumed to rise with increases in real GDP and fall with decreases in real GDP.

2. True False When C + I_g = GDP in a private closed economy, S = I_g and there are no unplanned changes in inventories.

3. True False The risk-free interest rate is the rate on long-term U.S. government bonds.

4. True False Bond prices and interest rates are directly or positively related.

5. True False The public debt is the accumulation of all deficits and surpluses that have occurred through time.

6. True False The M₂ money supply may be larger or smaller than the M₁ money supply depending on the size of small-denominated time deposit balances and Money Market Mutual Fund balances held by individuals.

7. True False Excess reserves are the amount by which required reserves exceed actual reserves.

8. True False The public debt is held as Treasury bills, Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, and U.S. savings bonds.

9. True False The equilibrium price level and equilibrium level of real GDP occur at the intersection of the aggregate demand curve and the aggregate supply curve.

10. True False Investment is highly stable; it increases over time at a very steady rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. A recessionary expenditure gap is:

A. the amount by which the full-employment GDP exceeds the level of aggregate expenditures.

B. the amount by which equilibrium GDP falls short of the full-employment GDP.

C. the amount by which investment exceeds saving at the full-employment GDP.

D. the amount by which aggregate expenditures exceed the full-employment level of GDP.

12. The multiplier effect indicates that:

A. a decline in the interest rate will cause a proportionately larger increase in investment.

B. a change in spending will change aggregate income by a larger amount.

C. a change in spending will increase aggregate income by the same amount.

D. an increase in total income will generate a larger change in aggregate expenditures.

13. Which one of the following is true about the U.S. Federal Reserve System?

There are 12 regional Federal Reserve Banks.

B. The head of the U.S. Treasury also chairs the Federal Reserve Board.

C. There are 14 members of the Federal Reserve Board.

D. The Open Market Committee is smaller in size than the Federal Reserve Board.

14. If the nominal interest rate is 18 percent and the real interest rate is 6 percent, the inflation rate is:

A. 18 percent.

B. 24 percent.

C. 12 percent.

D. 6 percent.

15.

Refer to the above diagram for a private closed economy. The equilibrium level of GDP is:

A. $400.

B. $300.

C. $200.

D. $100.

16. Which of the following represents the most expansionary fiscal policy?

A. a $10 billion tax cut

B. a $10 billion increase in government spending

C. a $10 billion tax increase

D. a $10 billion decrease in government spending

17.

Refer to the above table. The economy shown is a:

A. private economy.

B. private open economy.

C. mixed closed economy.

D. mixed open economy.

18. Currency held in the vault of First National Bank is:

A. counted as part of M₁.

B. counted as part of M₂, but not M₁.

C. only counted as part of M₁ if it was deposited into a checking account.

D. not counted as part of the money supply.

19. If the dollar appreciates relative to foreign currencies, we would expect:

A. the multiplier to decrease.

B. the country's exports and imports to both fall.

C. the country's net exports to rise.

D. the country's net exports to fall.

20. The most important determinant of consumption and saving is the:

A. level of bank credit.

B. level of income.

C. interest rate.

D. price level.

21. The multiple by which the commercial banking system can increase the supply of money on the basis of each dollar of excess reserves is equal to:

A. the reciprocal of the required reserve ratio.

B. 1 minus the required reserve ratio.

C. the reciprocal of the income velocity of money.

D. 1/MPS.

22. Which one of the following would not shift the aggregate demand curve?

A. a change in the price level

B. depreciation of the international value of the dollar

C. a decline in the interest rate at each possible price level

D. an increase in personal income tax rate

23. The cyclically-adjusted budget tells us:

A. that in a full-employment economy the Federal budget should be in balance.

B. that tax revenues should vary inversely with GDP.

C. what the size of the Federal budget deficit or surplus would be if the economy was at full

employment.

D. the actual budget deficit or surplus realized in any given year.

24. The aggregate supply curve:

A. is explained by the interest rate, real-balances, and foreign purchases effects.

B. gets steeper as the economy moves from the top of the curve to the bottom of the curve.

C. shows the various amounts of real output that businesses will produce at each price level.

D. is downsloping because real purchasing power increases as the price level falls.

25.

Refer to the above diagram. If the equilibrium price level is P₁, then:

A. aggregate demand is AD₂.

B. the equilibrium output level is Q₃.

C. the equilibrium output level is Q₂.

D. producers will supply output level Q₁

26. Discretionary fiscal policy refers to:

A. any change in government spending or taxes that destabilizes the economy.

B. the authority that the President has to change personal income tax rates.

C. intentional changes in taxes and government expenditures made by Congress to stabilize the economy.

D. the changes in taxes and transfers that occur as GDP changes.

27.

Refer to the above diagram. Which tax system has the most built-in stability?

A. T₄

B. T₃

C. T₂

D. T₁

28.

Refer to the given graph. A shift of the consumption schedule from C₁ to C₂ might be caused by a(n):

A.	recession.

B.	wealth effect of an increase in stock market prices.

C.	increase in income tax rates.

D.	increase in saving.

29. When a bank loan is repaid the supply of money:

A. is constant, but its composition will have changed.

B. is decreased.

C. is increased.

D. may either increase or decrease.

30. The Federal budget deficit is found by:

A. subtracting government tax revenues plus government borrowing from government spending in a particular year.

B. subtracting government tax revenues from government spending in a particular year.

C. cumulating the differences between government spending and tax revenues over all years since the nation's founding.

D. subtracting government revenues from the noninvestment-type government spending in a particular year.

31.

Refer to the above information. Money supply M₁ for this economy is:

A. $ 60.

B. $ 70.

C. $ 130.

D. $ 140.

32. Which of the following statements is true as a result of Federal Reserve efforts to rescue the financial industry from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008?

From February 2008, to May 2009, the Fed oversaw the consolidation of 20 major financial institutions into fewer than a dozen.

B. From March 2008, to February 2009, the Fed experienced a 50 percent decline in the value of assets held.

C. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed assets more than doubled to nearly $2 trillion.

D. From February 2008, to March 2009, Fed lending caused the U.S. public debt to rise by over $1 trillion.

33. Which of the following is the basic economic policy function of the Federal Reserve Banks?

holding the deposits or reserves of commercial banks

B. acting as fiscal agents for the Federal government

C. controlling the supply of money

D. the collection or clearing of checks among commercial banks

34. In a fractional reserve banking system:

A. bank panics cannot occur.

B. the monetary system must be backed by gold.

C. banks can create money through the lending process.

D. the Federal Reserve has no control over the amount of money in circulation.

35.

Refer to the diagram that applies to a private closed economy. The APC is equal to 1 at income level:

36. Assume the Continental National Bank's balance statement is as follows:

Assuming a legal reserve ratio of 20 percent, how much in excess reserves would this bank have after a check for $10,000 was drawn and cleared against it?

A. $ 3,000

B. $ 24,000

C. $ 6,000

D. $ 16,000

37. Answer the question on the basis of the following table for a commercial bank or thrift:

Refer to the above table. When the legal reserve ratio is 25 percent, the excess reserves of this single bank are:

A. $0.

B. $1,000.

C. $5,000.

D. $30,000.

38. Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy?

A. open market operations

B. changes in banking laws

C. changes in tax rates

D. changes in government spending

39. An increase in nominal GDP increases the demand for money because:

A. interest rates will rise.

B. more money is needed to finance a larger volume of transactions.

C. bond prices will fall.

D. the opportunity cost of holding money will decline.

40. Answer the next question on the basis of the following table:

At equilibrium in the above market for money, the total amount of money demanded is:

A. $500.

B. $480.

C. $460.

D. $440.

41. For most financial assets investors must be compensated for:

A. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk.

B. diversifiable risk and time preference.

C. non-diversifiable risk and time preference.

D. non-diversifiable and diversifiable risk, and time preference.

42. Reserves must be deposited in the Federal Reserve Banks by:

A. only commercial banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System.

B. all depository institutions, that is, all commercial banks and thrift institutions.

C. state chartered commercial banks only.

D. federally chartered commercial banks only.

43.

Refer to the diagrams. Assuming a constant price level, an increase in aggregate expenditures from AE₁to AE₂ would:

A.	move the economy from A to C along AD₁.

B.	move the economy from C to A along AD₁.

C.	increase aggregate demand from AD₁ to AD₂.

D.	decrease aggregate demand from AD₂ to AD₁.

44. The discount rate is the interest:

A. rate at which the central banks lend to the U.S. Treasury.

B. rate at which the Federal Reserve Banks lend to commercial banks.

C. yield on long-term government bonds.

D. rate at which commercial banks lend to the public.

45. What concept describes how quickly an investment increases in value when interest is paid not only on the original amount invested, but also on the accumulated interest payments?

A. present value

B. future value

C. compound interest

D. real rate of interest

46. The aggregate demand curve:

A. is upsloping because a higher price level is necessary to make production profitable as production costs rise.

B. is downsloping because production costs decline as real output increases.

C. shows the amount of expenditures required to induce the production of each possible level of real output.

D. shows the amount of real output that will be purchased at each possible price level.

47. The Security Market Line depicts the relationship between the:

A. average expected rate of return on stocks and the average expected rate of return on bonds.

B. average expected rate of return of a financial asset and the discount rate.

C. risk level of a financial asset and the prime interest rate.

D. average expected rate of return and risk level of a financial asset.

48. Arbitrage causes all financial assets:

A. of the same risk level to have the same price.

B. to have the same expected rate of return.

C. to have the same beta.

D. of the same risk level to have the same average expected rate of return.

49.

Refer to the diagrams. The numbers in parentheses after the AD₁, AD₂, and AD₃ labels indicate the levels of investment spending associated with each curve. All figures are in billions. If the money supply is MS₁ and the goal of the monetary authorities is full-employment output Q_f, they should:

A.	increase the money supply from $80 to $100.

B.	increase the money supply from $80 to $120.

C.	maintain the money supply at $80.

D.	decrease the money supply from $80 to $60.

50. Given the expected rate of return on all possible investment opportunities in the economy:

A. an increase in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

B. a decrease in the real rate of interest will reduce the level of investment.

C. a change in the real interest rate will have no impact on the level of investment.

D. an increase in the real interest rate will increase the level of investment.

END OF THE EXAM

ADMS 3520 Lecture Notes - Lecture 10: Tax Avoidance, Tax Deferral, Income Statement

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