ECON 1000 Lecture Notes - Lecture 1: Marginal Cost, Opportunity Cost

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Investment (gross): is the total amount of capital goods produced in a given time period (gross means before consideration of depreciation) Economics: is the study of how society chooses to allocate its relatively limited resources among the unlimited wants of its members (members always have a bias) Commodities: goods (physical) and services (non-physical) exchanged in markets (for money) Resources: are the inputs used in the production of goods and services, for example production of sandal: leather, tools, labour, electricity, etc. These resources are found in 3 groups: labour, capital and land (limits to resources limit the production of commodities) Labour: any human resource (wages are income of labour) Land: any resource not human from nature (rent is the income of land) Capital: any resource not human produced by the human society (intrest is the income of capital) Capital stock (k): is the total amount of capital in a economy.

Related Questions

1. The cost-benefit approach to deciding whether or not to undertake any activity argues that you should engage in the activity if:
a. The marginal cost of the activity exceeds the marginal benefit of the activity.
b. The marginal benefit of the activity exceeds the marginal cost of the activity.
c. There are benefits associated with the activity
d. There are costs associated with the activity

2. In the circular flow model, the household sector:
a. Demand goods and services in output markets, while the business sector supplies them.
b. Supplies goods and services in output markets, while the business sector demands them.
c. Demands and supplies goods and services in output markets.
d. Neither demands nor supplies goods and services in output markets.

3. In resource markets, households operate on the ________ side and business firms operate on the ______ side; these activities represent ______for households and _______ for business firms.
a. Demand; supply; income; revenue
b. Demand; supply; expenditures; revenue
c. Supply; demand; expenditures; costs
d. Supply; demand; income; costs

4. Ice cream sales and the incidence of polio were strongly correlated prior to the development of the polio vaccine. Assuming that eating ice cream caused polio is an example of the:
a. Fallacy of composition
b. Fallacy of division
c. Fallacy of false cause
d. Fallacy of ceteris paribus

5. Assuming that everyone is better off when a bridge is built in Alaska to serve a small community is an example of the:
a. Fallacy of composition
b. Fallacy of division
c. Fallacy of false cause
d. Fallacy of ceteris paribus

6. A production possibilities frontier for two outputs is drawn assuming that:
a. Opportunity cost is fixed, but the quantity and quality of resources changes
b. Both outputs use the same quantity of each resource, but the technology differs
c. The amount of resources currently available for production is fixed
d. The technology available can only be applied to producing one of the outputs

7. When wants and needs exceed the resource available to satisfy them:
a. Scarcity exists and society must rely on the government to allocate resources.
b. Scarcity exists and society must rely on free markets to allocate resources.
c. Scarcity exists and decisions must be made about how to allocate limited resources among competing uses.
d. Scarcity does not exist so it is not necessary to allocate resources.

8. If Carl is able to produce a greater number of baskets per hour than Sheila, then:
a. Carl cannot have a comparative advantage in the production of baskets
b. Carl has an absolute advantage in the production of baskets
c. Sheila has an absolute advantage in the production of baskets
d. Sheila has a comparative advantage in the production of baskets

9. If Carl's opportunity cost per basket is 4 bowls, but Sheila's opportunity cost per basket is 3 bowls, then:
a. Carl has a comparative advantage in the production of baskets
b. Carl has an absolute advantage in the production of baskets
c. Sheila has an absolute advantage in the production of baskets
d. Sheila has a comparative advantage in the production of baskets

10. Which of the following is not an example of the factor of production or economic resource referred to as capital?
a. An office building
b. Computers used by a tax preparation business
c. Lawnmowers owned by a landscaping firm
d. Money used to start a new business.

lavenderhippopotamus513

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

1. Which of the following groups of countries are all advanced economies?

		Hong Kong, Japan, France, and the United Kingdom
		Italy, the United States, China, and Russia
		Singapore, Russia, France, and Chad
		Australia, Brazil, and the United States

QUESTION 2

1. The most people live in ________ economies and the fewest people live in ________ economies.

		developing; emerging market
		advanced; emerging market
		emerging market; developing
		advanced; developing

QUESTION 3

1. Households and firms in the U.S. economy interact with those in the rest of the world in the ________ market and the ________ market.

		goods; financial
		government; goods
		goods; factor
		financial; factor

QUESTION 4

1. As a factor of production, oil reserves are counted as

		labor.
		capital.
		entrepreneurship.
		land.

QUESTION 5

1. ________ the owners of the factors of production, while ________ what amounts of those factors to hire.

		Households are; the government determines
		Firms are; households that determine
		The government is; firms determine
		Households are; firms that determine

QUESTION 6

1. The emerging market economies are

		the nations that are currently agricultural in nature.
		most of the nations of Western Europe.
		the largest grouping including the nations of China and India.
		in the transition from state-owned production to free markets.

QUESTION 7

1. In the United States, the productive factor that, as a group, receives the largest fraction of the nation's total income was

		consumption of goods and services.
		entrepreneurship.
		capital.
		labor.

QUESTION 8

1. Items bought by individuals to provide personal enjoyment are termed

		personal goods.
		consumption of goods.
		consumption or investment goods.
		standard goods.

QUESTION 9

1. In the advanced economies, ________ of the factories use advanced capital equipment and in the developing economies ________ of the factories use advanced capital equipment

		virtually all; none
		some; some
		virtually all; virtually all
		virtually all; some

QUESTION 10

1. The productive resource that includes all the "gifts of nature" is called

		land.
		labor.
		entrepreneurship.
		capital.

QUESTION 11

1. What would be an example of government good?

		Donald Trump purchases furniture for his office.
		Antonio, the manager of the local Taco Hut, purchases a new deep fryer.
		The local driver's license office purchases a new digital camera and printer.
		Jake buys an iPhone.

QUESTION 12

1. The world population is approximately ________ people.

		2 trillion
		680 million
		6.8 billion
		6.8 million

QUESTION 13

1. Computers and insurance coverage produced in the United States and sold to people in other nations are categorized as

		U.S. exports of goods and services.
		U.S. government goods and services.
		foreign capital goods.
		U.S. consumer goods and services.

QUESTION 14

1. Of the following, the federal government obtains most revenue from

		corporate income taxes.
		excise taxes.
		sales taxes.
		social security taxes.

QUESTION 15

1. Items bought by businesses to help produce other goods and services are called

		capital goods.
		government goods and services.
		consumption of goods and services.
		exports of goods and services.

QUESTION 16

1. The majority of the income earned in the United States is paid in

		profit.
		interest.
		rent.
		wages.

QUESTION 17

1. Dan missed class the day the professor covered the circular flow model. Dan asked his friend Joan to explain markets to him. Joan correctly stated that a market

		must include a written contract between buyers and sellers.
		requires a physical location for buyers and sellers to get together.
		is only a place to purchase groceries.
		is an arrangement that brings buyers and sellers together.

QUESTION 18

1. The United States possesses a large amount of human capital. As a result of this fact, in the United States, there is a

		highly skilled and educated labor force.
		a large number of kind and generous humans.
		a large number of people and a great deal of land.
		a large amount of machinery and equipment.

QUESTION 19

1. Which of the following correctly lists the categories of factors of production?

		labor, machines, buildings, capital, and entrepreneurship
		land, buildings, capital, and entrepreneurship
		land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship
		forests, fish, buildings, capital, and entrepreneurship

QUESTION 20

1. Which of the following correctly lists the categories of factors of production?

		capital, money, and labor
		hardware, software, land, and money
		land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship
		machines, buildings, land, and money

QUESTION 21

1. In the United States, the poorest 20 percent of households receive roughly ________ percent of total income.

		10
		3
		15
		20

QUESTION 22

1. What would be an example of a consumption service?

		Jake buys an iPhone.
		The local driver's license office purchases a new digital camera and printer.
		Antonio, the manager of the local Taco Hut, purchases a new deep fryer.
		Rhianna gets a haircut.

QUESTION 23

1. The total value of capital in the United States is around

		$47 trillion.
		$10 trillion.
		$100 trillion.
		$79 trillion.

QUESTION 24

1. An export good is a good produced

		by foreigners in the United States and purchased by U.S. households.
		in another country and purchased by U.S. residents.
		in the United States and sold to foreigners living in the United States.
		in the United States and sold in other countries.

QUESTION 25

1. ________ paid for the use of land; ________ paid for the services of labor; and ________ paid for the use of capital.

		Interest is; wages are; profit is
		Rent is; wages are; interest is
		Rent is; interest is; wages are
		Mortgages are; interest is; wages are

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ECON 1000 Lecture Notes - Lecture 1: Marginal Cost, Opportunity Cost

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