HLST 3250 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Pro Forma, Cash Flow, Financial Statement

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19 Apr 2017

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Chapter 04 financial forecasting: an increase in sales and/or profits means there is also an increase in cash on the balance sheet. True false: an increase in sales and profits generates the necessary cash required for economic growth. True false: profit is generally adequate to finance significant growth. True false: pro forma income statements follow a sales forecast and production plan. True false: pro forma statements are generally prepared six months to a year into the future. True false: pro forma income statements and balance sheets refer to projected financial statements. True false: the generation of sales and profits ensures that there will be adequate cash on hand to meet financial obligations as they come due. True false: sales projections and the ability to accurately predict the future have a large impact on cash flow targets. True false: production planning depends upon the beginning and ending accounts receivable levels, as well as the projected monthly sales level.

Related Questions

QUESTION 1 The knowledge of financial accounting can assist people with decisions such as whether to extend credit to a business. True False 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 2 Employees of a company would not have a reason to use the information provided by financial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 3 Financial accounting should be used for assessing the financial health of large organizations only. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 4 Financial accounting can be helpful for a job candidate who is assessing the financial future of a potential employer. True False 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 5 Lenders might use the information produced by financial accounting when making loan decisions. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 6 Credit analysts prefer not to use information provided by financial accounting, as it is not accurate. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 7 Financial accounting is helpful to investment advisors. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 8 Financial accounting is more useful than managerial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 9 The decision to buy or rent equipment is an example of a decision aided by managerial accounting. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 10 Which of the following statements is true of financial accounting? A. It is used by external parties to make investment decisions. B. It is used to make lease or purchase decisions. C. Managerial accounting is another name for financial accounting, D. It is primarily used to make internal decisions of a business. E. The effectiveness of advertising can be judged using financial accounting. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 11 The charge for using money over time, often associated with long-term loans, is known as: A. interest. B. principal. C. distribution charge. D. cash dividend. E. preferred dividend. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 12 Which of the following is a common feature of financial and managerial accounting? A. Both have same objectives B. Both are prepared according to U.S. GAAP C. Both are reported at year end in the annual report D. Both are analyzed by external users while making investment decisions E. Both are used by the management in making decisions 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 13 Dividends are required to be paid to stockholders on an annual basis. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 14 An individual who owns one or more shares of stock in a corporation is an owner of that corporation. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 15 Corporations do not exist as separate legal entities apart from their owners. True False 0.2 points Save Answer

QUESTION 16 It is very difficult to buy or sell ownership shares of a corporation in a stock exchange. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 17 Stock markets match up investors who wish to buy shares with those who wish to sell them. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 18 Legal process by which owners of an organization apply to a state government to have it identified as an entity legally separate from its owners is called: A. stocking. B. filling. C. attributing. D. registration. E. incorporation. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 19 An advantage of ownership in a sole proprietorship over ownership in a corporation is: A. tax benefits. B. having a board of directors. C. the ability to raise capital through issuance of stock. D. separation of owner and business as legal entities. E. limited liability for debts. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 20 Who hires the management of a corporation? A. Stockholders B. Board of directors C. Creditors D. Government E. SEC 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 21 Inventory refers to the: A. excess amount paid for an asset over its fair value. B. intangible assets of a business. C. merchandise bought or manufactured for the purpose of selling. D. amount of net income reinvested by company for future operations. E. revenue generated from investment. 0.2 points Saved QUESTION 22 Investors use financial information to predict whether a: A. company will recruit more employees. B. company's stock price will increase C. company has invested in buildings. D. company will pay salaries. E. company's bond price will increase. 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 23 Financial accounting can be compared to a portrait. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 24 Financial statements provide the form and structure for the conveyance of financial information that will create a likeness of the reporting organization. True False 0.2 points Saved

QUESTION 25 The information reported in financial statements must be exact for an investor to make any decision. True False 0.2 points Saved

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QUESTION 1

In the lease versus buy decision, leasing is often preferable

	A.	because the lessee owns the property at the end of the least term.
	B.	because lease obligations do not affect the firm's risk as seen by investors.
	C.	because, generally, no down payment is required, and there are no indirect interest costs.
	D.	because it has no effect on the firm's ability to borrow to make other investments.
	E.	because the lessee may have greater flexibility in abandoning the project in which the leased property is used than if the lessee bought and owned the asset.

2 points

QUESTION 2

The tighter the probability distribution of its expected future returns, the greater the risk of a given investment as measured by its standard deviation.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 3

Ratio analysis involves analyzing financial statements in order to appraise a firm's financial position and strength.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 4

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If the returns on two stocks are perfectly positively correlated (i.e., the correlation coefficient is +1.0) and these stocks have identical standard deviations, an equally weighted portfolio of the two stocks will have a standard deviation that is less than that of the individual stocks.
	B.	If a stock has a negative beta, its expected return must be negative.
	C.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have less market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5.
	D.	According to the CAPM, stocks with higher standard deviations of returns must also have higher expected returns.
	E.	A portfolio with a large number of randomly selected stocks would have more market risk than a single stock that has a beta of 0.5, assuming that the stock's beta was correctly calculated and is stable.

2 points

QUESTION 5

Many leases written today combine the features of operating and financial leases. Such leases are often called "combination leases."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 6

The owner of a convertible bond owns, in effect, both a bond and a call option.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 7

If a firm raises capital by selling new bonds, it is called the "issuing firm," and the coupon rate is generally set equal to the required rate on bonds of equal risk.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 8

Which of the following statements is most CORRECT?

	A.	Warrants can sometimes be detached and traded separately from the debt with which they were issued, but this is unusual.
	B.	One important difference between warrants and convertibles is that convertibles bring in additional funds when they are converted, but exercising warrants does not bring in any additional funds.
	C.	The coupon rate on convertible debt is normally set below the coupon rate that would be set on otherwise similar straight debt even though investing in convertibles is more risky than investing in straight debt.
	D.	Warrants have an option feature but convertibles do not.
	E.	The value of a warrant to buy a safe, stable stock should exceed the value of a warrant to buy a risky, volatile stock, other things held constant.

2 points

QUESTION 9

Because of improvements in forecasting techniques, estimating the cash flows associated with a project has become the easiest step in the capital budgeting process.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 10

The form of organization for a business is not an important issue, as this decision has very little effect on the income and wealth of the firm's owners.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 11

Two important issues in corporate governance are (1) the rules that cover the board's ability to fire the CEO and (2) the rules that cover the CEO's ability to remove members of the board.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 12

The "preferred" feature of preferred stock means that it normally will provide a higher expected return than will common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 13

If an investment project would make use of land which the firm currently owns, the project should be charged with the opportunity cost of the land.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 14

Operating leases help to shift the risk of obsolescence from the user to the lessor.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 15

Starting to invest early for retirement increases the benefits of compound interest.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 16

Market risk refers to the tendency of a stock to move with the general stock market. A stock with above-average market risk will tend to be more volatile than an average stock, and its beta will be greater than 1.0.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 17

Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 18

An option is a contract that gives its holder the right to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price within a specified period of time.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 19

The optimal distribution policy strikes that balance between current dividends and capital gains that maximizes the firm's stock price.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 20

If the current price of a stock is below the strike price, then an option to buy the stock is worthless and will have a zero value.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 21

The desire for floating-rate bonds, and consequently their increased usage, arose out of the experience of the early 1980s, when inflation pushed interest rates up to very high levels and thus caused sharp declines in the prices of outstanding bonds.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 22

Taylor Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept?

	A.	Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%.
	B.	Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%.
	C.	None of the projects should be accepted.
	D.	All of the projects should be accepted.
	E.	Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%.

2 points

QUESTION 23

To finance the construction of a new plant, Pietersen Corporation must raise an additional $10,000,000 of equity capital through the sale of common stock. The firm currently has an EPS of $5.40 and a P/E ratio of 10, with 1,200,000 shares outstanding. If the firm wants its ex-rights price to be $50, what subscription price must it set on the new shares?

	A.	$39.28
	B.	$50.00
	C.	$29.55
	D.	$41.80
	E.	$33.78

2 points

QUESTION 24

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming positive interest rates and holding other things constant?

	A.	A 30-year, $150,000 amortized mortgage will have larger monthly payments than an otherwise similar 20-year mortgage.
	B.	A bank loan's nominal interest rate will always be equal to or less than its effective annual rate.
	C.	The present value of a 5-year, $250 annuity due will be lower than the PV of a similar ordinary annuity.
	D.	If an investment pays 10% interest, compounded annually, its effective annual rate will be less than 10%.
	E.	Banks A and B offer the same nominal annual rate of interest, but A pays interest quarterly and B pays semiannually. Deposits in Bank B will provide the higher future value if you leave your funds on deposit.

2 points

QUESTION 25

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in inventories is reported as a use of cash.
	B.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts receivable is reported as a use of cash.
	C.	In the statement of cash flows, depreciation charges are reported as a use of cash.
	D.	In the statement of cash flows, a decrease in accounts payable is reported as a use of cash.
	E.	Dividends do not show up in the statement of cash flows because dividends are considered to be a financing activity, not an operating activity.

2 points

QUESTION 26

The term "additional funds needed (AFN)" is generally defined as follows:

	A.	A forecasting approach in which the forecasted percentage of sales for each balance sheet account is held constant.
	B.	Funds that are obtained automatically from routine business transactions.
	C.	Funds that a firm must raise externally from non-spontaneous sources, i.e., by borrowing or by selling new stock to support operations.
	D.	The amount of internally generated cash in a given year minus the amount of cash needed to acquire the new assets needed to support growth.
	E.	The amount of assets required per dollar of sales.

2 points

QUESTION 27

The cash flows associated with common stock are more difficult to estimate than those related to bonds because stock has a residual claim against the company versus a contractual obligation for a bond.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 28

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	The NPV method automatically deals correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified, but the IRR method does not. This is another reason to favor the NPV.
	B.	Identifying an externality can never lead to an increase in the calculated NPV.
	C.	Both the NPV and IRR methods deal correctly with externalities, even if the externalities are not specifically identified. However, the payback method does not.
	D.	An example of an externality is a situation where a bank opens a new office, and that new office causes deposits in the bank's other offices to increase.
	E.	An externality is a situation where a project would have an adverse effect on some other part of the firm's overall operations. If the project would have a favorable effect on other operations, then this is not an externality.

2 points

QUESTION 29

Time lines can be constructed in situations where some of the cash flows occur annually but others occur quarterly.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 30

A warrant is an option, and as such it cannot be used as a "sweetener."

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 31

BLW Corporation is considering the terms to be set on the options it plans to issue to its executives. Which of the following actions would decrease the value of the options, other things held constant?

	A.	The life of the option is increased, i.e., the time until it expires is lengthened.
	B.	The exercise price of the option is increased.
	C.	The Federal Reserve takes actions that increase the risk-free rate.
	D.	BLW's stock price becomes more risky (higher variance).
	E.	BLW's stock price suddenly increases.

2 points

QUESTION 32

Convertible debentures for Kulik Corporation were issued at their $1,000 par value in 2012. At any time prior to maturity on February 1, 2032, a debenture holder can exchange a bond for 25 shares of common stock. What is the conversion price, Pc?

	A.	$48.62
	B.	$40.00
	C.	$42.00
	D.	$46.31
	E.	$44.10

2 points

QUESTION 33

A stock is expected to pay a dividend of $0.75 at the end of the year. The required rate of return is rs = 10.5%, and the expected constant growth rate is g = 6.4%. What is the stock's current price?

	A.	$18.29
	B.	$17.39
	C.	$19.22
	D.	$18.75
	E.	$17.84

2 points

QUESTION 34

If a firm's goal is to maximize its earnings per share, this is the best way to maximize the price of the common stock and thus shareholders' wealth.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 35

The common stock of Southern Airlines currently sells for $33, and its 8% convertible debentures (issued at par, or $1,000) sell for $850. Each debenture can be converted into 25 shares of common stock at any time before 2025. What is the conversion value of the bond?

	A.	$783.75
	B.	$744.56
	C.	$825.00
	D.	$866.25
	E.	$707.33

2 points

QUESTION 36

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	If interest rates increase, the price of a 10-year coupon bond will decline by a greater percentage than the price of a 10-year zero coupon bond.
	B.	If a bond's yield to maturity exceeds its annual coupon, then the bond will trade at a premium.
	C.	If a coupon bond is selling at par, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	D.	If a coupon bond is selling at a premium, its current yield equals its yield to maturity.
	E.	If a coupon bond is selling at a discount, its price will continue to decline until it reaches its par value at maturity.

2 points

QUESTION 37

A proxy is a document giving one party the authority to act for another party, including the power to vote shares of common stock. Proxies can be important tools relating to control of firms.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 38

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

	A.	Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.
	B.	If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV.
	C.	If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV.
	D.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs.
	E.	If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV.

2 points

QUESTION 39

A firm's AFN must come from external sources. Typical sources include short-term bank loans, long-term bonds, preferred stock, and common stock.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 40

Which of the following could explain why a business might choose to operate as a corporation rather than as a sole proprietorship or a partnership?

	A.	Less of a corporation's income is generally subjected to taxes than would be true if the firm were a partnership.
	B.	Corporate shareholders escape liability for the firm's debts, but this factor may be offset by the tax disadvantages of the corporate form of organization.
	C.	Corporations generally find it relatively difficult to raise large amounts of capital.
	D.	Corporations generally face relatively few regulations.
	E.	Corporate investors are exposed to unlimited liability.

2 points

QUESTION 41

The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 42

Amram Company's current ratio is 1.9. Considered alone, which of the following actions would reduce the company's current ratio?

	A.	Use cash to reduce accruals.
	B.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce long-term debt.
	C.	Use cash to reduce accounts payable.
	D.	Borrow using short-term notes payable and use the proceeds to reduce accruals.
	E.	Use cash to reduce short-term notes payable.

2 points

QUESTION 43

ESOPs were originally designed to help improve worker productivity, but today they are also used to help prevent hostile takeovers.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 44

High current and quick ratios always indicate that a firm is managing its liquidity position well.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 45

A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC).

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 46

"Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 47

Heavy use of off-balance sheet lease financing will tend to

	A.	affect a company's cash flows but not its degree of risk.
	B.	make a company appear less risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will appear lower.
	C.	make a company appear more risky than it actually is because its stated debt ratio will be increased.
	D.	affect the lessee's cash flows but only due to tax effects.
	E.	have no effect on either cash flows or risk because the cash flows are already reflected in the income statement.

2 points

QUESTION 48

As a firm's sales grow, its current assets also tend to increase. For instance, as sales increase, the firm's inventories generally increase, and purchases of inventories result in more accounts payable. Thus, spontaneous liabilities that reduce AFN arise from transactions brought on by sales increases.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 49

On the balance sheet, total assets must always equal total liabilities and equity.

True

False

2 points

QUESTION 50

The annual report contains four basic financial statements: the income statement, balance sheet, statement of cash flows, and statement of stockholders' equity.

True

False

Question 1

The law of demand states that there is a direct relationship between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 2

Equilibrium is a state of balance between supply and demand.

True

False

4 points

Question 3

Goods are scarce for both rich and poor.

True

False

4 points

Question 4

"The big corporations in this country, like ExxonMobil and GM, have deep pockets and need to be hiring more people." This is a positive statement about economic policy.

True

False

4 points

Question 5

The law of supply states that there is a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

True

False

4 points

Question 6

In the circular flow model, firms own economic resources, and householdsbuy the manufactured products and services.

True

False

4 points

Question 7

Households play a dual role of providing the factors of production whilepurchasing the goods and services of firms.

True

False

4 points

Question 8

Opportunity cost is the lowest valued benefit that must be sacrificed asthe result of choosing an alternative.

True

False

4 points

Question 9

Scarcity denotes that our desire for a good exceeds the amount that isfreely available from nature.

True

False

4 points

Question 10

Economics is a social science concerned with satisfying man's unlimitedwants with limited resources.

True

False

4 points

Question 11

Joint output of individuals or nations will be maximized when goods areexchanged between parties in accordance with the law of"comparative advantage".

True

False

4 points

Question 12

The production possibilities frontier assumes that the level of technologyvaries when applying the model.

True

False

4 points

Question 13

Excess demand in the market will cause the price of a product to decline.

True

False

4 points

Question 14

Demand is measured on the vertical axis and supply on the horizontalaxis.

True

False

4 points

Question 15

A change in quantity demanded is a movement along the same demandcurve.

True

False

4 points

Question 16

As globalization and world trade proliferates, individual markets withincountries' economies become more competitive.

True

False

4 points

Question 17

Which growth theory compares a subsistence real wage rate to the actual real wage rate?

		Classical growth theory
		Inflation growth theory
		Neoclassical growth theory
		New growth theory

4 points

Question 18

Suppose the working age population in Tiny Town is 100 people. If 25 of these people are NOT in the labor force, the ________ equals ________.

		unemployment rate; 25/100 Ã 100
		employment rate; 25/75 Ã 100
		labor force; 75
		labor force; 25/100 Ã 100

4 points

Question 19

Suppose there is a rise in the real wage rate. As a result, the quantity of labor demanded:

		increases.
		decreases.
		does not change because there is no change in the money wage rate.
		increases only if the price level also decreases.

4 points

Question 20

GDP can be computed as the sum of:

		all sales that have taken place in an economy over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumers and business over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, and government expenditure on goods and services over a period of time.
		the total expenditures of consumption, investment, government expenditure on goods and services, and net exports over a period of time.

4 points

Question 21

The real wage rate equals:

		(100 x (money wage rate/price level)
		(100 x (price level/money wage rate)
		(money wage rate x (price level)
		(money wage + (number of hours worked/(price level)

4 points

Question 22

If the CPI was 121.5 at the end of 2007 and 138.3 at the end of 2008, the inflation rate over these two years was:

		10.2 percent.
		13.8 percent.
		12.2 percent.
		16.8 percent.

4 points

Question 23

A movement along the production function is the result of a change in:

		the quantity of labor.
		technology.
		capital.
		interest rates.

4 points

Question 24

All of the following are part of fiscal policy EXCEPT:

		setting tax rates.
		setting government spending.
		choosing the size of the government deficit.
		controlling the money supply.

4 points

Question 25

Along a production possibilities frontier for real GDP and the quantity of leisure time, as leisure time increases, real GDP:

		decreases.
		increases.
		stays the same.
		could increase, decrease or stay the same.

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HLST 3250 Lecture Notes - Lecture 7: Pro Forma, Cash Flow, Financial Statement

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