ECON 202 Lecture Notes - Lecture 10: Compact Disc, Real Wages, Money Supply
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Question 1
The higher the capital utilization rate, the greater the depreciation rate.
True |
False |
Question 2
Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates imply
operating at inconvenient times. |
paying overtime to employees operating the machines. |
operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive. |
All of the above. |
Question 3
If the rental price of capital increase, the capital utilization rate
increases. |
decreases. |
remains the same. |
depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect |
Question 4
The vacancy rate in the labor market is
the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force. |
the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force. |
the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs. |
the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied. |
Question 5
Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.
True |
False |
Question 6
A decrease in workersâ effective real incomes while they are unemployed will
lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment. |
lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. |
raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment. |
raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. |
Question 7
In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is
positively related to the job separations rate. |
zero. |
fixed. |
positively related to the job finding rate. |
Question 8
If the interest rate increases, the real demand for money also increases
True |
False |
Question 9
Commodity money is money that has value because
of the intrinsic value of the commodity. |
it is legal tender. |
the government says so. |
All of the above. |
Question 10
High-powered money is
money held by business for investment. |
total currency in circulation plus depository institution deposits at the Fed. |
total currency in circulation. |
government bonds held by the public and depository institutions. |
Question 11
U.S. M1 money includes
currency held by the public. |
checkable deposits. |
travelerâs checks. |
All of the above. |
Question 12
U.S. M2 money includes
currency, time deposits, and government bonds. |
savings deposits, small time deposits, and private bonds. |
checkable deposits, savings deposits, and small time deposits. |
retail money market mutual funds, small time deposits, and government bonds. |
Question
Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that
money does not pay interest. |
money has intrinsic value. |
money is a better long term store of value. |
All of the above. |
Question
If a personâs income doubles, we expect their cash holdings to
double |
more than double. |
less than double. |
decrease. |
Question 15
Real money demand does not change when
nominal GDP changes. |
the interest rate changes. |
the price level changes. |
All of the above. |
Question 16
All else constant, the price level rises when the supply of money increases.
True |
False |
Question 17
If the nominal interest rate were to increase, then
money demand decreases and the price level increases. |
money demand increases and the price level decreases. |
the money supply and the price level would increase. |
the money supply and the price level would decrease. |
Question 18
Real money demand is a function of real GDP and the nominal interest rate.
True |
False |
Question 19
The real return on money is zero.
True |
False |
Question 20
If the expected inflation rate is 5% and the unexpected inflation rate is 4%, the actual inflation is
1% |
9% |
-1% |
1.25% |
Question 21
When the rate of growth of money is constant
the inflation rate equals the growth rate of money. |
the nominal interest rate rises. |
real money balances are declining. |
All of the above. |
Question 22
A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes
a decrease in the nominal interest rate. |
an increase in money demand. |
a decrease in the price level. |
All of the above. |
Question 23
A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes
an increase in the nominal interest rate. |
an increase in money demand. |
an increase in the price level. |
All of the above. |
Question 24
Under price level targeting the money supply becomes
neutral |
endogenous |
exogenous |
predetermined |
Q 25 During a recession, the interest rate falls tending to cause money demand to rise, but is at least partly offset by real GDP falling tending to cause money demand to fall.
True |
False |
Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as a. real GDP b. personal income c. national wealth d. national income Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals a. depreciation b. exports c. imports d. net inventory change Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income. a. true b. false Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP. a. true b. false Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n) a. final good b. intermediate good c. consumer good d. capital consumption allowance Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting. a. true b. false Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.) a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply. a. true b. false Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI. a. true b. false Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment. a. true b. false Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level. a. true b. false Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise? a. 30 percent b. 16.7 percent c. 8.33 percent d. 12 percent Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have a. increased about 40 percent b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of a. $50,000 b. $500 c. $5,000 d. $4,500 Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity. a. true b. false Q21. The current base period for the CPI is a. 1967 b. 1977 c. 1982â1984 d. 1990 Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when a. planned I equals planned S b. planned I is less than planned S c. planned I is greater than planned S d. there is a surplus government budget Q23. COLA is a form of indexation. a. true b. false Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act b. prevented mergers of banks c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies d. eliminated all banking regulations Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors. a. true b. false Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is a. the discount rate b. the reserve requirement c. open-market operations d. moral suasion Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses a. Treasury bills b. long-term U.S. government bonds c. bonds of publicly traded corporations d. overnight loans of major banks Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has a. 6 members b. 7 members c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank d. 20 members Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the a. prime rate b. federal funds rate c. discount rate d. T-bill rate Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window. a. true b. false Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report. a. true b. false Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share? a. cash b. personal checks c. debit cards d. credit cards Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves. a. true b. false Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System. a. true b. false Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around a. 4 regional banks b. 6 regional banks c. 12 district banks d. 1 bank with several branches Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive. a. true b. false Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level Q40. The consumption function shows a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures, a. there will be no response from businesses b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by a. $30 billion b. $20 billion c. $45 billion d. $90 billion Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the a. multiplier effect b. marginal propensity to consume c. marginal propensity to invest d. consumption function Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier. a. true b. false Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely. a. true b. false Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase. a. true b. false Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation. a. true b. false Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income. a. true b. false Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand. a. true b. false Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to a. reduce total employment in the United States b. increase total employment in the foreign country c. reduce total output in the United States d. increase total output in the United States |