FIN 3300 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Ask Price, S&P 500 Index, Bid Price

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9 Jan 2017

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Types of financial assets and markets chapter 2,3 class notes. Major classes of financial assets or securities: fixed-income (debt) securities interest/principal payments (1st priority) Examples: treasury bills government bonds with maturity less than or equal to 1 year, commercial paper short-term debt issued by highly credit worthy firms, certificates of deposits (cds) term deposits at a bank. Bonds government and corporate capital market long term less liquid finance real investments, used to raise capital. Examples - treasury: us treasury bonds and notes. No default risk and highly liquid because treasury can print money: agency bonds issued by federal government agencies similar low risk as treasuries. Less liquid than treasuries: municipal bonds munis . Risk of municipal default: mortgage-backed securities: bonds backed by pools of mortgages. Private labels are backed by financial institutions. Debt because it pays a specific dividend like an interest payment: common stock (equity) Residual cash flow get dividend cash flow leftover after all other expenses/investments made.

Related Questions

The study of finance consists of the following interrelated area(s):

a) Financial markets and institutions

b) Financial services

c) Investments

d) Managerial (business finance)

e) All of the above

The liquidity asset is one that can be easily converted to __________ without significant loss of its original value.

a) Bonds

b) Cash

c) Gold

d) Liquid

e) Silver

A goal of financial intermediaries is to improve the economic well-being. Other benefits include:

a) Diversification (risk)

b) Financial flexibility

c) Funds divisibility/pooling

d) Reduced costs

e) Related services

f) All of the above

4.____________ represents the current value of some future amount.

a)Assumed value

b)Future value

c)Present value

d)Zero value

The cost of money (interest rates) is based on (1) the rate of return that borrowers expect to earn on their investments, (2) saversâ preferences to spend income in the current period rather than delay consumption until some future period, _____________________________, and (4) expected inflation.

a) the level of economic activity

b) the risks associated with investments/loans

c) the trade deficit

d) the yield, or return that is earned on an investment

6.Short-term debt includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)Bankerâs Acceptances

b)Certificates of Deposits (CDâs)

c)Commercial Paper

d)Eurodollar Deposits

e)Federal Funds

f)Government Bonds

g)Money Market Mutual Funds

h)Repurchase Agreements (Repos)

i)Treasury Bills (T-bills)

7.Common stockholders are usually referred to as the owners of the firm because investors in common stock have certain rights and privileges generally associated with ________________.

a)Contracts

b)Income stocks

c)Property ownership

d)Treaties

8.The concept of reducing the stand-alone risk of an individual investment by combining it with other investments to form a portfolio is called ______________.

a)Correlation coefficient

b)Diversification

c)Realized rate of return

d)Risk aversion

9.A _____________ is defined as the cash flows that could be generated from assets the firm already owns if they are not used for the project in question.

a)Balance Sheet

b)Budget

c)Income Statement

d)Opportunity Cost

e)Sunk Cost

To determine its required rate of return, the firm must compute the cost of each source of funds of capital that investors provide; that is, the firm must compute the ___________, the cost of preferred stock, the cost of retained earnings, and the cost of new common equity.

a) Cost of debt

b) Cost of equity

c) Cost of living

d) Cost of unemployment

ivorybat714

Multiple Choice Quiz
PLS EXPLAIN ALL YOUR ANSWERS
1
If a bond's rating improves:
A) It should cause the bond's price and yield to increase, allother factors constant.
B) It should cause the bond's price and yield to decrease, allother factors constant.
C) It should cause the bond's price to increase and its yield todecrease, all other factors constant.
D) None of the above.

2
An investor earning 6% from a tax-exempt bond, who is in a 25% taxbracket, holding risk constant:
A) Would be indifferent to a taxable bond with a 7.5% yield.
B) Would be indifferent to a taxable bond with a 8.0% yield.
C) Would be indifferent to a taxable bond with a 4.5% yield.
D) None of the above.

3
When the yield curve is downward sloping:
A) People are expecting an economic slowdown.
B) Short term yields are lower than long term yields.
C) This is impossible, since the yield curve always slopesupward.
D) People could be expecting a loosening in monetary policy.

4
Assume the Expectation Hypothesis regarding the term structure ofinterest rates. If the current one-year interest rate is 4% and thecurrent two-year interest rate is 6%, then:
A) Investors are expecting the future one-year rate to be 4%.
B) Investors are expecting the future one-year rate to be 8%.
C) Investors are expecting the future one-year rate to be 6%.
D) None of the above.

5
Which of the following statements is(are) true?
A) Conforming mortgages are mortgages for which the borrowers donot meet standards of creditworthiness.
B) Subprime mortgages are often made to individuals with low creditscores or income levels that are relatively low when compared tothe price of the home.
C) Subprime mortgages are never used in mortgage backed securitiesbecause of their riskiness.
D) All of the above.

6
Assume an investor has a choice of 3 consecutive one-year bonds orone 3-year bond. Assuming the Expectations Hypothesis of the termstructure of interest rates:
A) The average interest rate of the three consecutive one-yearbonds should be less than the 3-year bond to reflect the riskpremium.
B) The interest rate of the 3-year bond should equal the averageinterest rate of the 3 one-year bonds.
C) The three consecutive one-year bonds must have the same interestrate.
D) The current one-year interest rate must equal the current 3-yearinterest rate.

7
We would expect the risk spread between Baa bonds and U.S. Treasurysecurities of the same maturities to:
A) Widen during periods of economic recession.
B) To remain relatively constant over the business cycle.
C) To decrease during economic slowdowns.
D) To increase during economic growth periods.

8
Increased borrowing by the U.S. Treasury to finance growing budgetdeficits will:
A) Result in U.S. Treasury yields being higher than high gradecorporate bonds.
B) Result in the price of U.S. Treasury bonds rising.
C) Cause the yield on U.S. Treasury bonds to increase, but still belower than corporate bonds.
D) Result in lower yields on corporate bonds.

9
Imagine a scandal that finds the officers of bond rating agencieshave been taking bribes to inflate the rating of specific bonds.This should:
A) Have no impact on the bond market since bond markets are highlyefficient.
B) Decrease the demand for all bonds.
C) Increase the demand for U.S. Treasury securities and decreasethe demand for corporate bonds.
D) Decrease the risk spread.

10
A proposed increase in the federal income tax rates may actually beviewed favorably by many mayors of cities because:
A) It will allow them to also raise their tax rates.
B) It will cause the demand for Municipal bonds to increase andtheir yields to increase.
C) People will pay less attention to local taxes.
D) It will cause the price of municipal bonds to increase and theiryields to decrease.

11
Bonds rated as "highly speculative":
A) Are rated so because they guarantee high returns for thebuyer.
B) Are commonly referred to as junk bonds.
C) Are ranked just below investment grade by Standard &Poor's.
D) Are rated so because they do not have any default risk.

12
Ratings problems contributed to the financial crisis of 2007-2009because:
A) Ratings agencies sharply downgraded the ratings of MBS ashousing prices declined, reinforcing the decline in the prices ofMBS.
B) MBS issuers consulted ratings agencies to structure MBS to getthe highest ratings, causing a conflict of interest.
C) Ratings agencies were compensated by the issuers of the MBS,causing the incentive for favorable ratings.
D) All of the above.

13
An investor in a 30% marginal tax bracket, earning $10 in interestannually for a $100 U.S. Treasury bond:
A) Earns a 10% after-tax return because interest on U.S. Treasurybonds is tax exempt at the federal level.
B) Earns a 3% return after-tax.
C) Would be indifferent between this bond and a municipal bondoffering $7 annually per $100 of face value, assuming the samedefault risk.
D) Earns a 1% return after-tax.

14
Commercial paper refers to:
A) The financial publications read by the CEO's of publiccorporations.
B) Any debt security with a maturity exceeding one year.
C) Short-term collateralized securities issued only bycorporations.
D) Unsecured short-term debt issued by corporations andgovernments.

15
The addition of the Liquidity Premium Theory to the ExpectationsHypothesis allows us to explain why:
A) Yield curves usually slope upward.
B) Interest rates on bonds of different maturities movetogether.
C) Long-term interest rates are less volatile than short terminterest rates.
D) Yield curves are flat.

Question 1

Financial investments are made in efficient markets. The existence of these markets suggests that:

	a.	Investors cannot earn superior returns.
	b.	Investors cannot expect to outperform the market consistently.
	c.	Security prices are random.
	d.	Bearing additional risk will not increase return.

2 points

Question 2

A new issue of corporate securities sold to the general public must be:

	a.	Registered with the SEC.
	b.	Initially sold through brokers.
	c.	Offered initially to existing stockholders.

2 points

Question 3

Money market mutual funds invest in which of the following?

Commercial paper.

Repurchase agreements.

Corporate bonds.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of the choices are correct.

3 points

Question 4

FDIC insures:

	a.	U.S. Treasury bills.
	b.	Money market mutual funds.
	c.	Saving accounts.
	d.	Repurchase agreements.

3 points

Question 5

Which of the following does not have default risk?

	a.	Money market mutual funds.
	b.	Commercial paper.
	c.	Negotiable certificates of deposit.
	d.	U.S. Treasury bills.

2 points

Question 6

The spread is the:

	a.	Difference between the bid and ask prices.
	b.	Commission charged by the broker.
	c.	Difference between the purchase and sale prices.
	d.	Difference between the commissions charged by full-service and discount brokers.

3 points

Question 7

Securities regulations protect investors by:

	a.	Requiring disclosures of information by firms.
	b.	Stopping investors from buying overpriced stock.
	c.	Reducing competition among brokers.
	d.	Establishing commission schedules.

3 points

Question 8

If a stock is bought on margin:

	a.	The full amount of the cost of the investment is borrowed.
	b.	The commissions on the investment are increased.
	c.	The cost of the investment is reduced.
	d.	The interest on the borrowed funds is set by the SEC.

3 points

Question 9

Sarbanes-Oxley, the latest important securities law:

	a.	Reduces potential conflicts between securities analysts and investment bankers.
	b.	Legalizes the sale of securities by investment brokers.
	c.	Requires corporate boards of directors to own stock.
	d.	Mandates that security analysts file their recommendations with the SEC.

2 points

Question 10

Which of the following are true about the present value of a dollar?

It increases as the interest rate increases.

It decreases as the interest rate increases.

It increases as the time period increases.

It decreases as the time period increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 11

Time value concepts may not be used to determine:

	a.	The present value of an annuity.
	b.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	c.	The future value of $100 deposited in a bank.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 12

What is the marginal tax rate?

	a.	The tax rate paid on investment gains from items purchased on margin.
	b.	The tax rate paid on an additional dollar of taxable income.
	c.	The margin required on a stock purchase.
	d.	The present value of a lump sum.

2 points

Question 13

Examples of capital gains include sales of which of the following?

IRA accounts.

Stocks sold for a profit.

Real estate sold for a profit.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 14

With a Roth IRA, the individual:

	a.	May deduct annual contributions.
	b.	Earns tax-free income.
	c.	Defers taxes.
	d.	Avoids estate taxes.

2 points

Question 15

Sources of unsystematic risk include which of the following?

A firms financing decisions.

A firms operations.

Fluctuating market prices.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

2 points

Question 16

For diversification to reduce risk:

	a.	The returns on the individual securities should be highly correlated.
	b.	The prices of the stocks should be stable.
	c.	The returns on the individual securities should be negatively correlated.
	d.	One firm should offer dividends and the other should offer capital gains.

2 points

Question 17

Which of the following are true about beta coefficients?

They are a measure of systematic risk.

They relate the return on an individual security to the return on the market.

They measure the variability of an assets return.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 18

Which of the following does an efficient portfolio do?

Maximizes risk for a given return.

Minimizes risk for a given return.

Maximizes return for a given level of risk.

Minimizes return for a given level of risk.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 19

The security market line does not:

	a.	Indicate the relationship between risk and return.
	b.	Relate the market return and beta to a stock's return.
	c.	Identify the optimal portfolio for the investor.
	d.	Use beta coefficients as a measure of risk.

3 points

Question 20

Mutual funds ____ realized capital gains and income (for example, dividends received):

	a.	Retain.
	b.	Reinvest.
	c.	Distribute.
	d.	Distribute or reinvest.

2 points

Question 21

An index fund limits its portfolio to:

	a.	High quality securities.
	b.	Stocks that respond to changes in the consumer price index.
	c.	Stocks included in an aggregate measure of stock prices.
	d.	Stocks of firms in a particular industry.

2 points

Question 22

Mutual funds with beta coefficients greater than 1.0:

	a.	Have outperformed the market.
	b.	Have underperformed the market.
	c.	Have more systematic risk than the market.
	d.	Have less systematic risk than the market.

3 points

Question 23

Which of the following will tend to cause a stock's price to fall?

The firms beta declines.

The firms beta increases.

The risk-free rate declines.

The risk-free rate increases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 24

The use of P/E ratios to select stocks suggests that:

	a.	High P/E stocks should be purchased.
	b.	Low P/E ratio stocks are overvalued.
	c.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic low P/E.
	d.	A stock should be purchased if it is selling near its historic high P/E.

2 points

Question 25

What does the efficient market hypothesis require?

Financial markets to be competitive.

Prices to adjust rapidly.

Prices of undervalued securities to fall.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	All of these choices.

3 points

Question 26

Which of the following does the strong form of the efficient market hypothesis suggest?

Inside information will not lead to superior investment results.

Inside information will lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will not lead to superior investment results.

Studying financial statements will lead to superior investment results.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

3 points

Question 27

Which of the following is the least broad-based measure of stock prices?

	a.	NASDAQ market index.
	b.	Dow Jones industrial average.
	c.	S&P 500 stock index.
	d.	AMEX market value index.

3 points

Question 28

What is dollar-cost averaging?

	a.	Periodically buying a round lot of stock.
	b.	Periodically investing a specified dollar amount in a stock.
	c.	A means to increase the average cost basis.
	d.	A means to ensure a positive return.

2 points

Question 29

Stock dividends cause:

	a.	The price of a share of stock to rise.
	b.	The price of a share of stock to fall.
	c.	The value of the firm to rise.
	d.	The value of the firm to fall.

2 points

Question 30

Which of the following occurs when a stock has a two-for-one split?

	a.	The price of the stock doubles.
	b.	The firm's assets increase.
	c.	The firm's liabilities decrease.
	d.	The par value of the stock is reduced.

3 points

Question 31

Dividend reinvestment plans offer which of the following advantages?

Deferment of federal income taxes.

A convenient means to accumulate shares.

Dollar-cost averaging.

	a.	1 and 2.
	b.	1 and 3.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2.

3 points

Question 32

When the Federal Reserve seeks to expand the money supply, it:

	a.	Sells securities.
	b.	Buy securities.
	c.	Runs a deficit.
	d.	Runs a surplus.

2 points

Question 33

The sum of cash, currency, and demand deposits is:

	a.	M1.
	b.	M2.
	c.	M3.
	d.	M4.

3 points

Question 34

If the Federal Reserve lowers the target federal funds rate:

	a.	The discount rate rises.
	b.	Liquidity in the banking system is increased.
	c.	Security prices fall.
	d.	Required reserves are also decreased.

3 points

Question 35

The anticipation of inflation suggests that the investor should:

	a.	Buy bonds.
	b.	Anticipate higher interest rates.
	c.	Avoid real estate investments.
	d.	Sell stocks of gold companies.

3 points

Question 36

The current ratio is unaffected by:

	a.	Using cash to pay a dividend.
	b.	The collection of an account receivable.
	c.	Selling inventory for a profit.
	d.	Selling bonds and using the funds to finance inventory.

2 points

Question 37

Which of the following are true as the debt ratio increases?

Fewer assets are debt financed.

More assets are debt financed.

The ratio of debt equity increases.

The ratio of debt equity decreases.

	a.	1 and 3.
	b.	1 and 4.
	c.	2 and 3.
	d.	2 and 4.

2 points

Question 38

The technical approach suggests that future stock prices are forecasted by:

	a.	Past stock rates.
	b.	Financial ratios.
	c.	Accounting statements.
	d.	Monetary policy.

2 points

Question 39

The Dogs of the Dow strategy:

	a.	Forecasts the direction of the Dow Jones averages.
	b.	Suggests buying the Dow stocks with the highest dividend yields.
	c.	Outperforms the S&P 500.
	d.	Suggests buying the lowest-priced Dow stocks.

3 points

Question 40

Behavioral finance combines aspects from which two fields in an attempt to identify human traits that affect investment decisions?

	a.	Accounting and finance.
	b.	Finance and psychology.
	c.	Physics and finance.
	d.	Finance and marketing.

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FIN 3300 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Ask Price, S&P 500 Index, Bid Price

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