ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 3: Starbucks, Opportunity Cost, Standard-Definition Television

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ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Opportunity Cost, Absolute Advantage, Comparative Advantage

ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 3: Starbucks, Opportunity Cost, Standard-Definition Television

ECON 1 Lecture 4: Econ note day 4 10/5/18

Document Summary

Prices signal comparative advantage: prices define self-interest, everyone has self-interest, everyone ends up in a comparative advantage. Decision making in economics: take an action if profit is positive, profit = benefit - cost. Cost: the standard definition: the price paid to acquire, produce, accomplish, or maintain anything, a more difficult example case. A friend gave me a gold ring. By standard definition, the cost to me is zero. There comes to a more complete definition: the value of forgone opportunities-the best alternative opportunity. The lowest price i can will accept for my ring is . So the opportunity cost for me is . Explicit and implicit: explicit cost outlay of money, implicit cost not an outlay of money, buyer may have implicit cost, examples, amanda has a job at starbucks, making an hour. She can work as many hours as she wants. The price of a ticket to a concert in los angeles is .

Related Questions

Question 1 If it was impossible to have a comparative advantage, there would be no gains from trade. True False 4 points

Question 2 If the price of Good X is $10 and price of Good Y is $15, the slope of the budget constraint is 1.5. True False 4 points

Question 3 If the demand and supply curves have equal slopes in absolute value, the burden of a commodity tax will be split equally regardless of on whom the tax is placed. True False 4 points

Question 4 Suppose that supply is fixed at 100 units and demand is Q = 500 P. A price ceiling of $100 creates a shortage of 400 units. True False 4 points

Question 5 Housing shortages caused by rent controls are larger in the long run because the supply of housing is more elastic in the long run. True False 4 points

Question 6 Firms should exit the industry if average costs are greater than marginal costs. True False 4 points

Question 7 If a 3.67 percent increase in price causes a 1.97 percent decrease in quantity demanded, then total revenue must fall following an increase in price. True False 4 points

Question 8 Which of the following choices best illustrates the concept of Adam Smith's invisible hand ? A Vietnamese farmer grows rice; an exporter ships it to the United States, and a grocer in New York sells it to a customer. A fishery's stock of fish becomes depleted due to overfishing as boats from around the world converge. A government regulates a firm to clean up the pollutants it has released as part of its production process. An apartment building is built, which provides much needed housing, on the site of the only playground for children in that town. 4 points

Question 9 Figure: Labor Supply and Welfare Refer to the figure. The budget constraint is: ABC. BD. ABDC. ABD. 4 points Question 10 The price of coffee has increased, yet evidence suggests the demand for coffee has been stable. A possible explanation is that: there has been no change in the supply of coffee. there has been increased use of subsidies in coffee production. wages of workers in coffee production might have decreased. wages of workers in coffee production might have increased. 4 points Question 11 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding profit maximization in competitive markets? I. When all firms pursue profits, none of them achieve profits. II. When all firms pursue profits, only the most innovative will achieve profits. III. Production is divided in such a way that total costs of production are minimized. I only II only I and III only II and III only 4 points Question 12 Suppose France can produce four phones or three computers with one unit of labor, and Sweden can produce one phone or two computers with one unit of labor. If France can trade only with Sweden, then the theory of comparative advantage suggests that: France should specialize in producing phones and import computers from Sweden. France should specialize in producing computers and import phones from Sweden. France should produce both phones and computers, and import nothing from Sweden. France should import both phones and computers from Sweden. 4 points Question 13 Potato chips and popcorn are substitutes. A subsidy for potato chips will ______the demand for popcorn and the quantity of popcorn sold will ______. (Table: Barrels of Oil) Refer to the table. What is the total amount of producer surplus (per barrel of oil) earned by all four producers if the market price per barrel of oil is $51? Table: Barrels of Oil Minimum willingness to sell Country a single barrel of oil Country A $32.00 Country B 16.00 Country C 17.25 Country D 56.99 increase; increase increase; decrease decrease; decrease decrease; increase 4 points Question 14 In the market for Good X a necessity good without any good substitutes the workers and capital in the industry can easily find work producing other goods. The burden of the tax is likely to fall: more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more inelastic than supply. evenly between buyers and sellers. more heavily on sellers, given that supply is more inelastic than demand. more heavily on buyers, given that demand is more elastic than supply. 4 points Question 15 A U.S. manufacturer arranges to purchase parts from a German supplier for 500,000 euros in six months. The U.S. manufacturer is concerned that the dollar will depreciate against the euro, meaning the dollar cost of the 500,000 euros will rise. What should the U.S. manufacturer do? lobby the Fed to lower interest rates on six-month T-bills buy a futures contract that fixes the dollar cost of 500,000 euros in six months buy an exchange rate contract that pegs the interest rate to the discount rate on interbank loans sell a naked option to cover the output spread 4 points Question 16 Which of the following scenarios would cause a speculator to buy low and sell high ? Farmers expect to have a bumper harvest of corn next year. Imports of corn begin to flood the country. The government is expected to pass legislation making it mandatory for all vehicles to use corn-based fuels within one year. The government is expected to subsidize corn production for farmers. 4 points Question 17 In a market with a price ceiling which of the following is TRUE? Buyers and sellers experience unexploited gains from trade. Resources are allocated to their most efficient uses. The supply of goods is sold by the sellers with the lowest costs. The supply of goods is bought by the buyers with the highest willingness to pay. 4 points Question 18 Consider the following statements: I. Relative to a no-trade situation, if the United States exported wheat, the U.S. domestic wheat price would rise and domestic production of wheat would expand. II. Relative to a no-trade situation, international trade causes prices of all goods to rise. I is true; II is false. I is false; II is true. Both I and II are true. Both I and II are false. 4 points Question 19 As the price of a good fluctuates, a profit-maximizing firm will expand or contract production along its: average cost curve. average product curve. marginal cost curve. marginal product curve. 4 points Question 20 An increase in demand and a decrease in supply occur in a market. What happens to the equilibrium price and quantity? The equilibrium price decreases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price decreases; the equilibrium quantity increases. The equilibrium price increases; the change in the equilibrium quantity is ambiguous. The equilibrium price increases; the equilibrium quantity decreases.

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Market Analysis Market Participants Market participants act as if they are rational, self-interested, and forward-looking. For example, financial managers try to maximize the present value of profits for their particular companies, rather than ignore future values. Companies pursue many goals, but it is a financial mistake for managers to pursue any goal that conflicts with the primary goal of maximizing their firm's profits. Decentralized decision making by individual market participants is more economically efficient that centralized decision making by government policymakers. For example, it is more economically efficient to have financial managers obtain financing for their particular companies than to have government obtain it. A high degree of competition among market participants is the most economically efficient disciplining mechanism. For example, highly competitive financial markets discipline financial managers to pay fair market interest rates on the debt securities issued by their particular companies. The market system of prices is the most economically efficient allocative mechanism. For example, it is more economically efficient to distribute a firm's corporate stock to those buyers who are willing and able to pay the market price of the stock than to have the government distribute the stock. It is economically efficient for market participants to buy low and sell high globally. For example, it is economically efficient for U.S. firms to sell their financial securities to the highest bidders, no matter where they live in the world economy. Market imperfections can create considerable risk to market participants. For example, because of market imperfections, firms operating in the international financial markets encounter foreign exchange rate risk, political risk, interest rate risk, and default risk. Consumer Sovereignty The principle of consumer sovereignty tells us that by making their dollar votes, consumers indirectly determine the quantity and quality of products that firms will produce. For example, it is not economically efficient for financial managers to obtain more financing for their particular firms than is needed for their firms to produce the profit-maximizing level of output demanded by consumers. Market Economy A highly competitive market economy is largely self-regulating, in the absence of substantial market imperfections, in that economic conditions cannot be substantially improved by government regulation or other types of government intervention beyond laissez-faire policies. For example, if a firm's corporate stock is overvalued by a market economy, market forces will tend to drive down the value of the stock to a market price at which it is neither overvalued nor undervalued. As if by an invisible hand, highly competitive market forces will tend to create a harmony of interests among individual market participants, in the absence of substantial market imperfections. Consequently, the interests of shareholders and other stakeholders are compatible. For example, in trying to maximize profits, firms produce employment, income, consumer products, and wealth for households, as well as tax revenue for government, which helps maximize consumer utility and maximize social welfare. In a market economy, resources, products, and assets flow to their highest valued uses among alternative uses. For example, the shares of firms' corporate stocks will be acquired by those market participants who most highly value them, as indicated by the fact that they are willing to pay the most to acquire them. The efficient economic role of government is limited to Laissez-Faire ("hands off") policies, which create very little intervention in a market economy. For example, government regulations of banking and securities industries to maintain healthy, reasonably profitable, consumer-oriented financial markets would not be needed in a highly competitive market economy in the absence of substantial market imperfections. In a market economy, it is economically efficient for each market participant to specialize according to comparative advantage in producing what they can produce relatively better than other market participants, rather than produce all the outputs they can produce absolutely better than others. For example, it is economically efficient for people who are relatively better at being financial managers than others, to specialize in financial management even if they are absolutely better than others in doing many other types of work. If all labor were allocated to its comparative advantage, then no possible reallocation of labor would exist that could increase the rate of return to labor (i.e., the wage). There is no such thing as a free lunch, because all resources, products, and assets in a market economy are scarce. For example, current federal government budget deficits are not free to current market participants in that the deficits must be financed by future tax increases and/or future decreases in government spending and/or future inflation. For additional information on the Market Economy click here. Marks, R. E. (2006, December). There Is No Such Thing As Free Lunch. Australian Journal of Management. 31(2). 1-7. Financial Decisions An efficient financial decision, practice, transaction, or condition is one that is optimal -- meaning best; it cannot be improved, from society's perspective. If there is some profitable way to improve some business practice that would benefit society, that practice is somewhat inefficient. Any change in a financial decision, practice, transaction, or condition that improves society is an efficiency improvement. For example, it is an efficiency improvement for a business to cut production costs by reducing waste (e.g., by reducing spending on unprofitable activity. A financial decision, practice, transaction, or condition is fair-- meaning just or equitable, if the financial benefits are distributed to those involved in proportion to how much they each voluntarily contributed to produce those benefits. For example, a financial practice that discriminates against some people on the basis of race, age, gender, nationality, or religion is unfair. For example, an unethical business practice is unfair. For additional information relating to Market Analysis and fair financial decisions, click on the following: Teaching Ethical Economic Practices to Business Managers. Johnston, C. (2009, October). The Proceedings of the Annual Conference of The International Academy of Business and Economics. Fairness is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition, for efficiency. All efficient financial practices are fair, but some fair practices may still fail to be efficient. For example, embezzling company funds is an unfair and inefficient, criminal financial activity. As another example, an ethical business practice that could be improved is fair but not efficient. Opportunity Cost Principle Opportunity cost principle: The efficient measure of the cost of any allocation of resources, products, money income, wealth, or time is its opportunity cost -- the value of the next best use. The opportunity cost of how one uses his or her resources is the value of the highest valued alternative use. The opportunity cost of one investment is the expected return on the next best investment available to the firm. For example, the opportunity cost of a firm using some of its profits to pay dividends to its stockholders would be the present value of future income those profits could have earned if invested in the firm's highest valued investment project.

Discussion Questions These questions stem from the Class Discussion Questions you will be anwering in the Discussion Board. Think about the questions and how they relate to the financial management principles above.

2. Applications: State the financial management principle that appears to be violated in each of the following cases and explain how it is violated:

(a) A corporation is maximizing sales growth and the price of its corporate stock is falling.

(b) A highly paid financial manager in the auto industry quit his job to set up his own small auto repair shop, which is expected to incur a loss for the first three years then earn normal profits.

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 3: Starbucks, Opportunity Cost, Standard-Definition Television

ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 2: Opportunity Cost, Absolute Advantage, Comparative Advantage

ECON 1 Lecture Notes - Lecture 3: Starbucks, Opportunity Cost, Standard-Definition Television

ECON 1 Lecture 4: Econ note day 4 10/5/18

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