ECO 304L Lecture 2: Lecture 2 Notes
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7 Feb 2017
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Bt: value of outstanding government bonds at the end of period t. Intt: interest payments on government bonds during period t. Bt-1: government debt at end of period t-1. During period t, government pays interest on its debt as of the start of the year. Bt - bt-1 = gt + trt + intt - taxt. Rearranging, bt (new debt stock) = bt-1 (old debt stock) + gt + trt + intt - taxt. Primary deficit: all government outlays except interest on government bonds. Government deficit = primary deficit + int. Even if the primary deficit is constant, debt grows. G: government expenditures: payments for currently produced goods or services. Tr: transfer payments: payments not in exchange for currently produced goods or services. Government debt and the government budget deficit. Goods market: where final goods and services are bought and sold. Financial markets: stocks, bonds and other financial instruments are bought and sold. Market value of final goods and services.
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The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. 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The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act b. prevented mergers of banks c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies d. eliminated all banking regulations Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors. a. true b. false Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is a. the discount rate b. the reserve requirement c. open-market operations d. moral suasion Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses a. Treasury bills b. long-term U.S. government bonds c. bonds of publicly traded corporations d. overnight loans of major banks Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has a. 6 members b. 7 members c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank d. 20 members Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the a. prime rate b. federal funds rate c. discount rate d. T-bill rate Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window. a. true b. false Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report. a. true b. false Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share? a. cash b. personal checks c. debit cards d. credit cards Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves. a. true b. false Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System. a. true b. false Q37. 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In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures, a. there will be no response from businesses b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by a. $30 billion b. $20 billion c. $45 billion d. $90 billion Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the a. multiplier effect b. marginal propensity to consume c. marginal propensity to invest d. consumption function Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier. a. true b. false Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely. a. true b. false Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase. a. true b. false Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation. a. true b. false Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income. a. true b. false Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand. a. true b. false Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to a. reduce total employment in the United States b. increase total employment in the foreign country c. reduce total output in the United States d. increase total output in the United States |
