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Trying to work out and reason through this practice question tohelp me on my test.

"Briefly explain why non-homologous end joining is overwhelmingfavored over homologous recombination repair for fixing doublestrand DNA breaks in mammalian cells in G1. Why is this biasreversed during G2?"

So I reckon that non-homologous end joining is favored in G1because although original base pairing is lost and chewed back byexonuclease before the DNA is re-ligated, the loss of base pairsisn't critical due to the imminent S phase, which will ensure theDNA is further re-synthesized, thus mitigating the effect of lostbase pairs.
However, for G2, nonhomologous recomb. is favored because in thismethod base pairs are re-added before getting re-ligated, ensuringno bases are lost. This is critical because the next phase ismitosis, and all of the DNA must be synthesized to this point; anyloss of DNA before mitosis would probably lead to mutations whenthe cell eventually divides.

Is my reasoning accurate? Please chime in anddiscuss!

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Jarrod Robel
Jarrod RobelLv2
28 Sep 2019

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