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9. In a physiology lab, the students designed an experiment toillustrate how the heart responds to changes in blood pressure.Everyone relaxed and then did a headstand. Which of the followingobservations are consistent with the change in the function oftheir hearts?

a. increased heart rate
b. decreased heart rate
c. increased stroke volume
d. decreased stroke volume
e. both decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume

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Deanna Hettinger
Deanna HettingerLv2
28 Sep 2019

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Related questions

Question 1. Increased peripheral edema could be caused by:

a. blocked lymph vessels

b. decreased capillary blood pressure

c. increased concentration of albumin in the blood

d. slowed heart rate

Question 2. The pulse pressure of a healthy student is most likely to be:

a. 5 mm Hg

b. 30 mm Hg

c. 95 mm Hg

d. 120 mm Hg

Question 3. beta-blockers inhibit the activity of beta-adrenergic receptors and change the function of the heart by:

a. increasing heart rate and increasing contractility

b. increasing heart rate and decreasing contractility

c. decreasing heart rate and increasing contractility

d. decreasing heart rate and decreasing contractility

Question 4. In cardiac pacemaker cells, the L-type calcium channels:

a. open during diastole

b. close when the membrane potential rises above threshold

c. are located in the cell membrane

d. pump Ca2+ ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 5. Dr. Campbell used an elliptical trainer for 40 minutes at the gym. Although the workload remained constant, Dr. Campbell’s heart-rate rose to 150 beats per minute during the first 5 minutes, stayed at that level for the next 25 minutes and then started to rise. It was 180 beats per minute at the end of the exercise period.

What was the time interval between QRS complexes when Dr. Campbell’s heart rate was 180 beats per minute?

a. 3.3 ms

b. 33 ms

c. 333 ms

d. 3333 ms

Question 6. In the question 5 above, Dr. Campbell’s heart rate is most likely to have risen during the last 10 minutes of exercise because his:

a. lungs were becoming congested

b. atrial cells were fatigued

c. extracellular Ca2+ concentration had increased

d. hematocrit increased due to sweating

Question 7. A Physiology student is sitting still in a cold igloo. After 30 minutes, she stands up, walks slowly around the igloo, and suddenly starts to shiver.

The student preserved their core temperature while they were sitting by:

a. depressing their Frank-Starling mechanism

b. decreasing the extracellular Ca2+ concentration

c. relaxing smooth muscles in their peripheral circulation

d. increasing the resistance of arterioles in their arms and legs

Question 8. In the question 7 above, the student started to shiver soon after walking because:

a. their atria started to fibrillate

b. their ventricles started to fibrillate

c. blood moved to the periphery, became cold, and chilled the core when it returned to the chest

d. the ATP concentration in their skeletal muscles had dropped to zero

Please use the following scenario for answering the questions 9 and 10.

A newly discovered drug binds to myosin molecules in cardiac muscle (and nowhere else) and increases the probability that myosin molecules in ventricular cells will bind to actin filaments when the intracellular Ca2+ concentration rises. The drug is being tested as a potential therapy for patients with heart failure.

Question 9. This drug might help people who have low cardiac output by:

a. increasing peripheral resistance

b. increasing the force developed by ventricular cells

c. increasing the isovolumic contraction time

d. increasing heart rate

Question 10. The increased binding of cardiac myosin molecules to actin might prevent the drug from being a useful treatment by:

a. slowing ventricular relaxation

b. decreasing the duration of systole

c. decreasing resistance of capillaries

d. slowing heart rate

Please help me answer this multiple choice questions: (please answer all questions)

No explantion needed just the answer needed.

physiology and neurobiology questions below.

31. Systemic arterioles dilate in response to _____.

A. Increased CO2 levels in the tissue

B. Decreased O2 levels in the tissue

C. Decreased pH in the tissues

D. All of the above

32. Blood in the pulmonary arteries ______

A. Contains hemoglobin which is about 98.5% saturated with oxygen

B. Has a PO2 of about 40 mmHg

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

33. Completion of first meiotic division of oogenesis yields.

A. One secondary oocyte

B. Four primary oocyte

C. Four mature ova (egg cells)

D. Four secondary oocytes

34. The final absorbable products of chemical digestion occurring in the brush border of the small

intestine include:

A. Monosaccharides and amino acids

B. Proteins and chylomicrons

C. Disaccharides and amino acids

D. Monosaccharides and disaccharides

35. The hemoglobin oxygen curve saturation curve plots ____ on the dependent (Y) axis and ____

on the independent (X) axis.

A. Oxygen concentration; hemoglobin concentration

B. % oxygen saturation of hemoglobin; PO2 of blood

C. % oxygen saturation of hemoglobin; PCO2 of blood

D. Hemoglobin concentration; oxygen concentration

36. In contrast to the female hypothalamic pituitary-sex steroid axis, control of the male axis is

aimed at ____.

A. Allowing spermatogenesis to occur just once a month

B. Keeping levels of pituitary gonadotropins relatively constant in blood

C. Keeping levels of hypothalamic releasing hormones higher than usual in blood

D. Causing a positive feedback effect of sex steroid up on gonadotropins

37. Which of the following will correct acidosis?

A. Speed up the proton pump

B. Buffering of protons with phosphate in the tubular lumen

C. Renal metabolism of glutamine

D. All of the above

38. Epithelium with a brush border (microvilli) is characteristics of the mucosa found in

A. Duodenum

B. Proximal Tubule

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

39. The transport maximum (Tm) for glucose, addition filtered glucose

A. Is no longer filtered

B. Appears in urine

C. Is secreted

D. Is reabsorbed

40. Stroke volume is equal to ____.

A. End-diastolic volume alone

B. End-diastolic volume plus end-systolic volume

C. Cardiac output minus heart rate

D. End-diastolic volume minus end-systolic volume

41. The long term solution to a change in blood pH involves

A. Digestive System

B. Respiratory System

C. Buffers such as hemoglobin

D. Renal System

42. The left heart receives blood from ___ and pumps blood out through the ____.

A. Superior vena cava; pulmonary trunk

B. Pulmonary veins, pulmonary trunk

C. Pulmonary veins; aorta

D. Pulmonary arteries; aorta

43. Selection and activation of specific B lymphocytes may lead to all EXCEPT_____.

A. Formation of memory cells

B. Secretions of antibodies

C. Activation of complements to destroy tagged antigen

D. Secretion of perforin

44. Bile is stored and released into the duodenum from the

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Gall Bladder

D. Duodenum

45. Beta oxidation of fatty acids yields _____,which then can be further oxidized to produces ATP.

A. Glycogen

B. Amino acids

C. Keto acids

D. Acetyl CoA

46. The relationship between the loop of Henle and the vasa recta capillaries function.

A. Absorption of glucose, amino acids and creatinine

B. Countercurrent exchange

C. Countercurrent multiplication

D. All of the above

47. Anterior pituitary production of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) is decreased by

A. Testosterone from Sertoli cells

B. Inhibin from Sertoli cells

C. Inhibin from interstitial (Leydig) cells

D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) from granulosa cells

48. A response to acidosis would involve

A. Slowing down the proton pump

B. Greatly increased excretion of HCO3- (bicarbonate ions)

C. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above

49. The conversion of spermatid to spermatozoa occurs

A. By differentiation process in the seminiferous tubule

B. In epididymis

C. By meiosis, in the seminiferous tubule

D. In the prostate gland

50. Antibody-mediated immunity defends against ____.

A. Virus infected cells

B. Viruses and bacteria in the blood or body fluids

C. Bacteria only

D. Viruses only

6. The site for countercurrent multiplier and exchange in the nephron is ________.
a. proximal tubule b. nephron loop and vasa recta c. distal tubule & collecting duct

7. The function of the kidneys is evaluated by measuring the
a. tubular reabsorption b. tubular secretion c. glomerular filtration rate

8. Abnormal amount of leukocytes in urine is termed _____.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. nitrituria

9. In diabetes mellitus the clinical term for the abnormal urinalysis is called ________.
a. ketonuria b. hematuria c. pyuria d. glycosuria e. proteinuria

10. The possible cause of increase ____________ in urine is liver pathology o gallstones.
a. bile b. erythrocytes c. nitrites d. glucose e. protein

11. Proteinuria is caused by increase glomerular permeability due to kidney trauma, heavy mental, toxins, exertion, hypertension or glomerular nephritis.
a. True b. False

12. The normal pH of urine ranges from _____ to _____.
a. 2.2, 4.5 b. 10.3, 13.5 c. 8.0, 10.2 d. 4.5, 8.0 e. 6.0, 7.0

13. The average specific gravity of urine is slightly higher than 1.000 because the solutes it contains.
a. True b. False


14. __________ is the term for the normal smell of fresh urine.
a. Asparagus b. Nitrites c. Urinoid d. Ammonia

15. The concentration of this pigment in urine change the color of it.
a. Urinoid b. Nitrites c. Urobilin d. Calcium

16. The failure of a kidney to develop is termed _________________.
a. renal agenesis b. horseshoe kidney
c. supernumerary kidney d. pelvic kidney

17 Renal ptosis refers to the ___________ movement of the kidney within the abdominal cavity.
a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior

18. Renal failure refers to the diminish o absent renal function caused by the destruction of about ___ of the kidney.
a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 90%

19. Renal calculus may occur from crystallized glucose after high levels in blood.
a. True b. False

20. An untreated UTI that spread to the kidneys is termed ____________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

21. Pain is an associated symptom of an UTI, and this is termed as __________.
a. urethritis b. cystitis c. pyelonephritis d. dysuria

22. Incontinence refers to ___________ whereas retention refers to____________
a. inability to involuntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally.
b. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to voluntary control urination
c. inability to voluntary control urination, failure to eliminate urine normally
d. failure to eliminate urine normally, inability to involuntary control urination

23. All of the following are physical characteristics of urine except:
a. Color and transparency b. Odor c. pH d. specific gravity e. taste

24. Preformed water includes the water absorbed from food and drink whereas metabolic water includes the water from cellular respiration and dehydration.
a. True b. False

25. Sensible water los is not measured. In contrast insensible water loss is measured and includes sweat and transpiration.
a. True b, False

26. ____________ water loss is dependent upon the degree of hydration and is hormonally regulated in the tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative
27. ___________ water loss is a loss of water that always occur regales of the state of hydration of the body.
a. Sensible b. Insensible c. Obligatory d. Facultative

28. Fluid is lost from the body through the following normal mechanism except:
a. breathing b. sweating c. defecation d. urination e. vomiting

29. ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬The stimuli that activates the thirst center include all of the following except:
a. decreased salivary secretions b. distention of the stomach
c. increased blood osmolality d. decreased blood pressure

30. Stimuli for inhibiting the thirst center are produced when fluid intake is greater than fluid output.
a. True b. False

31. Fluid balance is regulated by monitoring blood volume, blood pressure, and blood plasma osmolarity.
a. True b. False

32. This electrolyte imbalance can lead to confusion, coma, paralysis of breathing muscles, and death.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

33. _____________ may cause muscle weakness and irregular heart beat that can lead to cardiac arrest.
a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia

34. Numbness, tingling, increase heat rate, and muscle spasm that can lead to tetany is caused by _____.
a. hypenatremia b. hyperkalemia c. hypercalcemia d. hypocalcemia

35. If a patient needs IV fluids like 0.9% saline solution it means the solution contains 0.9 gr of _______ to every 100 ml of sterile water.
a. glucose chloride b. calcium chloride c. potassium chloride d. sodium chloride

36. Which of the following individual will be more vulnerable to dehydration?
a. Young adults b. Middle-aged adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. c & d

37. Diabetes insipidus refers to:
a. hypersecretion of insulin b. hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone
c. hyposecretion of insulin d. hypersecretion of antidiuretic hormone
e. none of the above

38. During vomiting the major loss is ___________ whereas in diarrhea there is an extensive loss of ________.
a. hydrochloric acid (HCl), bicarbonate (HCO3) b. bicarbonate (HCO3), hydrochloric acid (HCl)
c. bicarbonate (HCO3), glucose d. hydrochloric acid (HCl), sodium



39. Lactic acidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

40. Ketoacidosis results from:
a. prolongs intense exercise b. congestive heart failure
c. insufficient insulin production d. a & b e. a, b & c

41. In respiratory alkalosis, respiratory rate increases and blood __________ _____________.
a. CO2 increases b. CO2 decreases
c. O2 increases d. O2 decreases e. none of the above

42. Metabolic acidosis compensate with _____________ ______________.
a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis e. metabolic alkalosis e. none of the above

43. The step in the digestive process that deals with a series of catabolic steps in which complex food molecules are broken down into their chemical building blocks by enzymes secreted into the lumen of the alimentary tract is called
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

44. ________________ is the passage of digestive end products from the lumen of the GI tract by active or passive transport into the blood or lymph.
a. Propulsion b. Ingestion c. Chemical digestion d. Defecation e. Absorption

45. In which part of the digestive tract is chemical digestion essentially completed?
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. small intestine e. large intestine

46. The organ that carries most metabolic function in the body is the
a. stomach b. liver c. small intestine d. pancreas

47. The main function of these organs is propulsion: peristaltic waves move food bolus to stomach accomplishing the phase of deglutition
a. Mouth and associated accessory organs b. Pharynx and esophagus
c. Stomach d. Small intestine e. Large intestine

48. Which hormone will be secreted especially if the bolus contains proteins?
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

49. The following target organs are stimulated by secretin except:
a. stomach b. pancreas c. liver d. gallbladder

50. The stimulus of chime containing amino acids and fatty acids entering the small intestine releases ____________.
a. gastrin b. cholecystokinin c. secretin

51. The cells that produce intrinsic factor, important in the absorption of B12, is the ______ cells.
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

52. The most numerous of the secretory cells within the gastric glands, which produce zymogen are:
a. surface mucous b. mucous neck c. parietal d. chief e. G-cells

53. The following are functions of hydrochloric acid except:
a. activates pepsinogen b. kills microorganism
c. prevents ulceration of the stomach d. denatures proteins

54. Barrett esophagus refers to an advance case of GERD in which the epithelium changes from columnar secretory to stratified squamous.
a. True b. False

55. Gastric and duodenal ulcer are both peptic ulcers; the difference is that one occurs in the stomach and the other in the first part of the duodenum respectively.
a. True b. False

56. The following are common complication of advanced liver cirrhosis except:
a. jaundice b. edema c. ascites d. gastritis e. intense itching

57. Most cases of appendicitis occurs because fecal matter obstructs the appendix. As the inflammation worsens the parietal peritoneum becomes inflamed as well.
A. True b. False

58. The majority of colorectal cancer appears in the following areas except:
a. descending colon b. sigmoid colon c. rectum d. proximal ileum

59. Polyps are outgrowths from the colon mucosa whereas diverticulosis are bulges in the intestinal lining.
a. True b. False

60. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder. The damage in the small intestine is the smooth muscle which interferes with absorption.
a. True b. False

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