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22 Feb 2018

The average human (you will have to figure out what that is) produces her/his weight in ATP per 24 hours day, but at any one time, the human body has only a reserve of about 250g of ATP. Obviously, a lot of ATP is being used up all the time, and it ahs to be replaced. Calculate roughly how many ATP molecules the average human cell produces per second. To determine what the average cell is, you will have to discover the number of cells produces per second. To determine what the average cell is, you will have to discover the number of cells in the average human body, and how much the average human weighs. (It is obvious that some cells are more active thant others, but for the sake of this exercise, assume all cells are equally active.)

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Beverley SmithLv2

25 Feb 2018

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Related questions

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging is a tool that has been very useful in identifying what parts of the brain do what. Scientists can have a person perform some particular activity and then look for active areas in the brain. How does fMRI work?

	A.	It takes a picture of the inside of the brain according to electricity levels. The more electrical current in the area, the more active it is.
	B.	It takes a picture of the inside of the brain according to blood flow. More blood flow indicates more activity in that area.
	C.	It takes images of thin layers of the brain and the more electrical activity in a layer, the more magnetic it is and this shows up in fMRI.
	D.	Electrodes attached to the skull can trigger activity in particular brain areas which then trigger a person to perform certain behaviors.
	E.	It takes a picture of the brain according to oxygen levels. More oxygen in an area indicates more activity in that area.

The strategy of vaccination to fight diseases uses what type of immunity?

	A.	Non-specific immunity
	B.	Cell-mediated immunity
	C.	Natural immunity
	D.	Specific immunity
	E.	Passive immunity

If you came into contact with Vibrio, what defense do you have to keep it from even getting to your intestines?

	A.	Your skin is an effective barrier against bacteria you come in contact with.
	B.	Antimicrobial enzymes in saliva
	C.	Acid in the stomach
	D.	Mucous membranes in the digestive and respiratory tract
	E.	All of the above

What do B cells do when they identify a pathogen?

	A.	Engulf and eat it
	B.	Kill it
	C.	Produce antigens to bind to the pathogen and memory cells to guard against future infection.
	D.	Produce antibodies to bind to the pathogen and memory cells to guard against future infection.
	E.	Engage helper T cells to fight the infection

There are chemical signals that call on non-infected cells to help fight a virus. Which are they?

	A.	Complement proteins
	B.	Macrophages
	C.	B cells
	D.	Interferons
	E.	Natural killer cells

When someone gets a bone marrow transplant, they have to be quarantined and carefully protected from pathogens for a period of time afterward. Why?

	A.	Bone marrow produces the main cells involved in the specific immune response, so these patients are at special risk of infection until they build up enough marrow to produce sufficient cells.
	B.	Bone marrow produces blood cells, so they have insufficient circulation for a period of time so their immune system lacks the energy to fight off any infection.
	C.	Anytime a foreign substance, even someone else's bone marrow, is introduced to a body, there is an extra risk of infection.
	D.	A common complication of bone marrow transplants is infection, and doctor's don't want the infection to spread to others.
	E.	It's a traumatic procedure, and any extra stress on their body could kill them.

Question 9

Codominance is a form of inheritance in which two different allelesfor a gene are both expressed, and neither allele is dominant overthe other. One example of codominance is fur color in cattle; thealleles for red fur and white fur are codominant. If a homozygousred cow and a homozygous white bull mate, what would you expect tofind in their offspring?.912.l.16.2>

They will all have white fur.

Their fur will be a mixture of red and white hairs.

Their fur will be a lighter shade of red.

They will all have red fur.

Question 10

If a tRNA molecule has an anticodon which reads AUG, what will itmatch up with and what amino acid is it carrying?
.912.l.16.5>

	U		C		A		G
	UUU	Phenylalanine	UCU	Serine	UAU	Tyrosine	UGU	Cysteine	U
U	UUC	Phenylalanine	UCC	Serine	UAC	Tyrosine	UGC	Cysteine	C
	UUA	Leucine	UCA	Serine	UAA	Stop	UGA	Stop	A
	UUG	Leucine	UCG	Serine	UAG	Stop	UGG	Tryptophan	G
	CUU	Leucine	CCU	Proline	CAU	Hisitidine	CGU	Arginine	U
C	CUC	Leucine	CCC	Proline	CAC	Hisitidine	CGC	Arginine	C
	CUA	Leucine	CCA	Proline	CAA	Glutamine	CGA	Arginine	A
	CUG	Leucine	CCG	Proline	CAG	Glutamine	CGG	Arginine	G
	AUU	Isoleucine	ACU	Threonine	AAU	Asparagine	AGU	Serine	U
A	AUC	Isoleucine	ACC	Threonine	AAC	Asparagine	AGC	Serine	C
	AUA	Isoleucine	ACA	Threonine	AAA	Lysine	AGA	Arginine	A
	AUG	Methionine/Start	ACG	Threonine	AAG	Lysine	AGG	Arginine	G
	GUU	Valine	GCU	Alanine	GAU	Aspartate	GGU	Glycine	U
G	GUC	Valine	GCC	Alanine	GAC	Aspartate	GGC	Glycine	C
	GUA	Valine	GCA	Alanine	GAA	Glutamate	GGA	Glycine	A
	GUG	Valine	GCG	Alanine	GAG	Glutamate	GGG	Glycine	G

It is carrying arginine and will match with a CGU codon on themRNA.

It is carrying methionine and will match with a TAC codon on theDNA.

It is carrying methionine and will match with a UAC codon on themRNA.

It is carrying tyrosine and will match with a UAC codon on themRNA.

Question 11

While the DNA in a human skin cell was being replicated, a singlebase was miscopied. What will be the most likely result of this forthe cell in which it happened?.912.l.16.3>

All the proteins the cell creates from the miscopied strand willdo different jobs than the old ones.

If the new sequence codes for the same amino acid as theoriginal cell, it will function normally.

Both new DNA strands will end up together in a new cell, and theinaccurate one will be discarded.

Any miscopied DNA will be replaced with an accurate DNA copyonce the cell divides.

Question 12

A ferret's haploid number of chromosomes is 20. How would thenumber of chromosomes in the ferret's body cells compare to thenumber of chromosomes in its gametes?.912.l.16.17>

Its body cells would have 20 chromosomes, and its gametes wouldhave 40 chromosomes.

Its body cells and gametes would both have 40 chromosomes.

Its body cells and gametes would both have 20 chromosomes.

Its body cells would have 40 chromosomes, and its gametes wouldhave 20 chromosomes.

Question 13

A body cell is in the longest stage of its life cycle. The cellgrows, synthesizing proteins and increasing in size. Eventually,the cell will grow too large to carry out normal activities. Whichof the following is the best conclusion you can make about the lifecycle of this cell?.912.l.16.14>

The cell is close to the end of its life cycle, and a chemicalsignal will initiate cell death.

The cell is ready to undergo mitosis, and a chemical signal willsend the cell to prophase.

The cell is in the G1 phase of interphase, and a chemical signalwill send the cell to the S phase.

The cell is in the S phase of interphase, and a chemical signalwill move the cell to the G2 phase.

Question 14

While mRNA strands are being created a sequence is sometimesmiscopied. What is the best possible outcome for the cell shouldthis take place?.912.l.16.5>

The miscopied sequence codes for the same amino acids as theoriginal sequence.

The new sequence creates a protein that serves a differentfunction from the original.

The ribosomes will correct the mistake before the tRNA matchesan amino acid to it.

The mRNA will only be used to create non-critical proteins forthe cell.

Question 15

Over the last several decades, the scientific community hasgathered a large amount of information regarding genetics andgenetic variation. What are two main sources that lead toincreased genetic variation?.912.l.15.15>

Selective breeding

Gamete mutations

Recombination

Genetic drift

salmonlouse680

In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.