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8 Aug 2019

) Identify the intrinsic factors that affect microbial growth in the following two products:

a) Tomatoes

b) Sun-dried tomatoes

Cut tomatoes in halves and dip in a solution containing citric acid, ascorbic acid and salt. Then the tomatoes are dried (aw<0.9 and pH <4.4).

2) What intrinsic factors are affected by the: a) citric acid, b) ascorbic acid, c) salt and d) drying treatments?

3) What are the microbial concerns for the two products and why?

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Sixta KovacekLv2

11 Aug 2019

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Review Questions for Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth

1. Consider the following statement: âThorough handwashing with soap and water is the most important step in stopping the spread of many infectious diseasesâ.

a. Explain this statement.

b. Following thorough handwashing with soap, are your hands sterile? Why or why not?

2. If pasteurization does not achieve sterilization, why is pasteurization used to treat food? Why not just heat the food instead?

3. Consider the use of salts and sugars to preserve food.

a. How do salts and sugars preserve foods?

b. Why are these considered physical rather than chemical methods of microbial control?

c. Name one food that is preserved with sugar and one preserved with salt.

d. How do you account for the occasional growth of Penicillium mold in jelly, which is 50% sucrose?

4. Consider dried fruit you can buy at the store (e.g., raisins, pineapples, figs, dates, etc.) Dried fruits date back thousands of years B.C.

a. Why is this such an effective method of preserving food? Suggest several possibilities.

b. Fruit is often dried by being placed outside in the open under the sun in conditions that are not exactly sanitized. Why is this practice generally very safe?

5. There is great concern over healthcare-associated infections.

a. Why are healthcare settings such a âgoodâ place to catch infectious diseases? List several reasons.

b. What are several effective approaches that healthcare settings can take to minimize the spread of infectious disease?

6. Flying on an airplane includes lots of individuals in close quarters for potentially long periods of time.

a. What technology do you think airplanes use to reduce the amount of microbes from the air?

b. Despite this control method, there have been a number of documented cases of individuals infected with tuberculosis infecting other passengers during a flight. Explain how you think this happened. Which patients are at highest risk for infection, and what does this tell you about the effectiveness of microbial control on an airplane?

7. The thermal death time for a suspension of Bacillus subtilis endospores is 20 minutes in dry heat and less than 10 minutes in an autoclave. Which type of heat is more effective? Why?

8. A large hospital washes burn patients in a stainless steel tub. After each patient, the tub is cleaned with a quat. It was noticed that 14 of 20 burn patients acquired Pseudomonas infections

after being bathed. Provide an explanation for this high rate of infection.

9. If youâre on a municipal water supply, the water coming out of your faucet is chlorinated at the water treatment plant.

a. Is the water coming out of your faucet sterile?

b. Does the water still contain chlorine?

c. What are advantages and disadvantages of chlorine compared with other approaches (e.g., UV treatment, treatment with ozone).

10. You are a member of Engineers Without Borders, and your local chapter has been asked by a rural village in Thailand to assist them with improving their water supply, which they suspect of making villagers sick. The village has piping infrastructure that delivers water through a series of pipes to each household. Upon your initial site assessment of the village, you and your team determine that the water has high turbidity (particulate material) as well as a high bacterial count.

a. Design a strategy for treating the water to make it safe to drink that still relies upon the distribution system. Note that you may make some reasonable assumptions about conditions in the village (e.g., availability of electricity if you wish).

b. Identify some possible limitations of your approach.

11. A low technology approach to treating water in rural locations is to fill clear plastic soda bottles with water and leave it out all day in the sun (e.g., up on a roof).

a. What two factors are most likely at work in controlling microbes in these conditions?

b. What impact does each factor have on the microbes? Be specific.

amberraven287

1. Which of the following statements about E. coli bacteria is TRUE?

A. It is only found in undercooked beef.

B. It is only found in unpasteurized milk.

C. It is a harmless bacterium.

D. It only affects foods prepared outside of the home.

E. It has been found in undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk and juice, and raw fruits and vegetables.

2. Where can food preparation result in foodborne illness?

A. private homes

B. catering/banquet facilities

C. institutions such as schools or prisons

D. restaurants

E. All of the above.

3. Which of the following results in the highest number of cases of foodborne illness?

A. norovirus

B. Salmonella

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Campylobacter

E. Staphylococcus aureus

4. Pregnant women have a significantly higher risk of contracting foodborne illness caused by a specific pathogen. Which is it?

A. E. coli

B. Salmonella

C. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Campylobacter

E. Bacillus cereus

5. Common food and beverage sources of Salmonella include all of the following, EXCEPT

A. eggs

B. poultry

C. unpasteurized milk

D. raw oysters

E. meat

6. In order to prevent illness, those most at risk for foodborne illness should avoid all of the following foods and beverages, EXCEPT

A. raw sprouts (alfalfa, bean, or any other sprout)

B. hot dogs heated thoroughly

C. raw or undercooked eggs or foods containing raw or undercooked eggs

D. raw shellfish and their juices

E. unpasteurized (raw) milk

7. The safe zone for refrigerated foods is to be chilled below

A. 70^oF

B. 50^oF

C. 41^oF

D. 32^oF

E. 1^oF

8. If everyone who attended a family reunion and ate a freshly prepared meal of carved roast turkey became sick with a foodborne illness, and those who ate the freshly prepared carved roast beef did not, then what aspect of the four steps to food safety would most likely have been the cause?

A. clean

B. separate

C. cook

D. chill

E. None of the above.

9. You purchase deli meat wrapped in plastic from a grocery store, carry it out to your car in a paper bag, and leave it in the car while running errands for another hour. It is 80 degrees outside. Which of the four steps of food safety have you neglected to follow?

A. clean

B. separate

C. cook

D. chill

E. All of the above.

10. What should be used to measure the internal temperature of meat to ensure that it has been cooked thoroughly and to avoid foodborne illness?

A. probe thermometer

B. mercury thermometer

C. appearance of the meat (when it looks done)

D. the ovenâs temperature setting

E. cooking time

11. Why is it important for foods to be promptly chilled at the correct, safe temperature?

A. to improve taste

B. to improve appearance

C. to reduce the likelihood of bacterial growth

D. to have leftovers

E. to shorten cooking time

12. Which of the following is TRUE about USDA-certified organic food?

A. healthier than nonorganic food

B. safer than nonorganic food

C. considerably less expensive than non-organic food

D. made up of 50% certified-organic ingredients

E. at least 95% of the agricultural ingredients must be certified organic

13. Which federal agency has the primary legal responsibility for food additives?

A. FDA

B. USDA

C. DHHS

D. NIH

E. CDC

14. Who is LEAST likely to be negatively affected by a foodborne illness?

A. 45-year-old adult with HIV/AIDS

B. 20-year-old healthy college student

C. 80-year-old nursing home resident

D. 15-year-old chemotherapy patient

E. 15-month-old baby

15. Refrigerated leftovers should be eaten or thrown out within , in the interest of health and food safety.

A. 1 day

B. 2 days

C. 4 days

D. 1 week

E. 10 days

16. The FDA has approved food irradiation for all of the following, EXCEPT

A. meat

B. poultry

C. fresh fruits

D. dairy foods

E. fresh vegetables

17. The virus that causes the most foodborne illnesses and a significant number of related hospitalizations is

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Campylobacter

C. Salmonella

D. hepatitis

E. norovirus

18. The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) signed in 2011 is praised because of the focus on

A. food taste

B. food defense

C. food prices

D. access to food

E. access to farm land

19. High intake of which food additive has been connected to hyperactivity in some children?

A. artificial food colors (AFC)

B. monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

C. salt

D. citric acid

E. fructose

20. All of the following can increase the likelihood of experiencing food insecurity, EXCEPT

A. poverty

B. unemployment

C. having a family farm

D. living in a food desert

E. cost of nutritious foods

21. Which one of these programs is the largest program in addressing domestic hunger?

A. Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

B. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)

C. National School Breakfast Program

D. National School Lunch Program

E. Meals on Wheels

22. In the United States, there are several widely sold, common genetically modified (GM) foods. These include all of the following, EXCEPT

A. organic apples

B. corn

C. rice

D. tomatoes

E. soybeans

23. What can influence the worldâs food supply?

A. drought

B. flooding

C. civil unrest

D. climate change

E. All of the above.

24. A sustainable food system needs

A. uncontrolled population growth

B. safe and secure food supply

C. rapid climate change

D. constant drough

E. one-crop megafarms

25. Those who argue FOR genetically modified foods cite all of the following, EXCEPT

A. increased supply of food

B. drought-resistant plants

C. increased susceptibility to some pests

D. increased vitamin content in foods

E. improved food taste

26. Composting is an example of which type of sustainable food strategy?

A. buying local

B. purchasing organic foods

C. eliminating industrial meat consumption

D. reducing food waste

E. eating unprocessed foods

27. It is estimated that demand for food will rise by between 70% and 100% by 2050. What is one factor that will contribute to increasing demand?

A. population growth

B. civil unrest

C. unemployment

D. falling incomes

E. existing food insecurity

28. Which of the following is a legitimate potential risk of growing and consuming genetically modified foods?

A. The food tastes better, so people eat more.

B. The food lasts longer but loses nutritional benefits.

C. A plant food could produce a protein that is allergenic to some people.

D. The food may be infested with pests.

E. The food may absorb too much water and cause bloating.

29. Dirty equipment in a food truck has contaminated food as it travels to the grocery store. In which step of the food supply process did the contamination occur?

A. planting

B. production

C. processing and distribution

D. preparation

E. None of the above.

30. Fecal-oral transmission can occur at all of the following times, EXCEPT

A. when a food handler does not wash his/her hands before touching food to be prepared

B. when a daycare worker does not wash his/her hands after changing a babyâs diaper and then picking up another childâs bottle to feed them

C. when a food server cleans the restaurant bathroom and does not wash his/her hands before delivering food plates to a table

D. when animal fecal matter is present in the field where produce is grown and harvested

E. after toys in a daycare facility are soaked in a bleach-and-water solution overnight

31. All of the following are TRUE of parasites, EXCEPT that they can

A. live in a host

B. live on a host

C. multiply in foods

D. be a worm

E. be single-celled

32. The most common symptoms of foodborne illness are

A. bleeding

B. fever

C. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

D. diarrhea

E. fever and vomiting

33. Which of the following is one of the most common bacterial causes of diarrheal illness and hospitalizations in the United States and is found in over half of all raw chickens, in addition to being found in raw milk and raw shellfish?

A. Clostridium perfrigens

B. Campylobacter

C. E. coli

D. Staphylococcus

E. meningitis

34. Which type of cheese should a pregnant woman avoid to reduce her risk of contracting a foodborne illness?

A. cheddar cheese

B. Swiss cheese

C. American cheese

D. queso fresco

E. mozzarella cheese

35. What process has been used to reduce the likelihood of foodborne illness experienced by NASA astronauts in space?

A. pasteurization

B. vaccinations

C. irradiation

D. antibiotics

E. antibacterial spacesuits

36. The USDA has recommended safe internal temperatures for foods. Which type of meat must be heated to the highest temperature?

A. turkey and chicken

B. ground beef

C. fully cooked ham (to reheat)

D. fish

E. beef roast

37. Two ways to prevent cross contamination in your kitchen are

A. wash hands, use clean dishes

B. wash hands, reuse plates when needed

C. wash hands, always use same cutting board for raw meats and vegetables

D. wash hands, store raw meats in same grocery bag as other foods

E. wash hands, clean off surfaces with the same cloth used to wipe up floor spills

38. What can food handlers do prior to food preparation to easily and dramatically reduce the likelihood of causing foodborne illnesses?

A. cover their mouth with their hand when coughing

B. wash hands before preparing food

C. wipe feet before entering kitchen

D. take medication to reduce fever before coming to work

E. store raw meat in an uncovered container

39. Who is most at risk for foodborne illness?

A. healthy 20 yr old male

B. 30 yr old female

C. infant 6 mo old female

D. 45 yr old female nurse

E. all the above

40. What is a favorable conditions for bacterial growth in food?

A. foods kept at temp. below 40 degree F

B. food kept at temp. above 140 degree F

C. food with a high moisture content

D. food with a low moisture content

E. very sweet food

TRUE or FALSE (A for true and B for false)

41. Food additives may be used to maintain freshness of food.

42. Foodborne intoxication is caused by ingestion of food that contains a toxin that may be naturally present in the food.

43. Staphylococcus aureus lives on the skin.

44. One foodborne pathogen that pregnant women are often warned against is protozoans.

45. The pathogen Norovirus cause muscle aches and fever.

46. The 1993 Jack in the Box outbreak caused Congress to update the monitoring of meatpacking plants in the United Stated.

47. Cross contamination is the transfer of bacteria or other pathogens from one source or surface to another.

48. Sit-down restaurants are the single setting of preparation responsible for the highest number of illness resulting from foodborne disease outbreaks.

49. Salmonella pathogen causes the most severe illness of all pathogens.

50. The FDA is responsible for regulating the safety of GM crops consumed by humans and animals in the United States.

lavenderzebra115

The Case of the Aging Surfer

Seth, a thirty-eight year-old white male of Scandinavian descent, has lived his entire life in Southern Florida. He is very concerned with maintaining a "healthy" appearance. Seth is very athletic and especially enjoys surfing. He has been surfing since the age of twelve and he started making surfboards while he was in high school. After obtaining a college degree in marketing Seth decided to start his own business making surfboards and giving surfing lessons for a local resort near his home. During a routine physical examination the physician assistant that Seth sees commented on the presence and appearance of a small growth (approximately 2-cm in diameter) above Seth's right eyebrow. This growth was shiny with a pearly border, a central ulcer and engorged surface blood vessels. The physician assistant was concerned that this might be a tumor and asked Seth a number of questions to aid in the diagnosis. Seth reported that he noticed this growth approximately six months ago but thought nothing about it since he often developed "pimples" when he was working on surfboards because of the heat and dust. Seth noticed that the growth would occasionally bleed, but he thought the bleeding most often occurred when he absently scratched above his eyebrows when he was working. Seth also reported that after bleeding the growth would "crust over" and appear to heal, but not disappear. Seth also thinks the lesion has increased in size, but he can't be certain.

The physician assistant asks Seth to come back in two days to visit with the attending physician and encourages Seth to be sure to use sunscreen whenever possible, especially when he is surfing or teaching surfing classes. Upon returning to see the physician, Seth is told that he probably has a basal cell carcinoma. This, the physician explains, is a cancer that while not benign, rarely metastasizes and grows very slowly. This type of cancer usually occurs in areas that have the greatest exposure to the sun (i.e. the face, head, and neck). While this cancer would probably not metastasize, the physician suggests surgical removal to minimize damage to any underlying tissues and a histological examination of the excised tissue to confirm the diagnosis.

Seth is concerned that if this is indeed cancer he will have to undergo radiation and/or chemotherapy and suffer from both hair loss and nausea like his mother did when she was being treated for breast cancer 10 years ago. The physician assures Seth that these treatments are not required for basal cell carcinoma and explains that this cancer usually remains localized to the specific area of the skin and does not usually spread to other tissues, so radiation and chemotherapy would not be necessary. Seth then asks why it is necessary to remove the tumor if it will not spread and is told that while the tumor does not spread to other body areas it will continue to grow and also invade deeper layers of the skin, such as the dermis, and destroy normal tissues. Seth agrees to the procedure and schedules a follow-up appointment to discuss the results of the biopsy the following week. At the follow-up appointment, Seth is told that the lesion was indeed a basal cell carcinoma. He is told that it will be important for him to try to use both sunscreens, specifically those containing para-aminobenzoic acid or PABA, and protective clothing as much as possible to minimize the effects of the ultraviolet (UV) rays of the sunlight. Seth is also told that while he should not be overly concerned, he should also pay close attention for similar lesions in the future, since a person with a single basal cell carcinoma is likely to develop additional basal cell carcinomas in the future.

http://emedicine.com/derm/topic47.htm

http://www.skincancer.org

The Case of the Aging Surfer:

Define the bold terms in the text.

How are benign and malignant tumors similar and different from each other?

Identify and briefly describe the three most common types of skin cancer and the risk to individuals who have developed each of them.

What are oncogenes and how are they believed to be related to cancer?.

Identify both the primary risk factors that Seth presents with and other risk factors that may or may not relate to Seth's case.

The procedure that Seth experiences is called the Mohs Surgery. What does it involve?

How do chemotherapy and radiation therapy act as treatments for cancer?

8) Explain why tanning booths are actually more dangerous than sunlight exposure in increasing the risk of developing some form of skin cancer.

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