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6 Dec 2018

When was the science for presumptive drug testing developed? What were the recommendations of the scientists at the time of development? Has the science related to presumptive drug testing changed significantly since its original development?

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Sixta Kovacek
Sixta KovacekLv2
6 Dec 2018

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Related questions

please help me answer some science questions:

Question 1: Choose all answers that correctly complete the following statement:

Science is...

Question 1 options:

A)

a set of careful steps followed in order by people in lab coats.
B)

just a collection of facts.
C)

a process of learning about the natural world.
D)

unchanging and static - once we know a scientific fact it does not change.
E)

a method that can answer any question.
F)

testing ideas with evidence.

Question 2 : "What is the meaning of life?" is a question that cannot be answered by science because

Question 2 options:

A)

it is not an interesting enough question for scientists.
B)

it involves collaboration with others to fully answer.
C)

it deals with supernatural explanations.
D)

it only has one answer.

Question 3 : Ignaz Semmelweis wanted to explain the high rates childbed fever mortality in his hospital in the 1800s. How did he use science?

Question 3 options:

A)

He wore a lab coat while in the maternity ward. He did not wear a lab coat in the rest of the hospital.
B)

He tested the idea that doctors caused the deaths by comparing mortality rates of patients treated by doctors that disinfected their hands (in between patients) with the mortality rates of patients that had dirty-handed doctors.
C)

He read a scientific journal about bacterial causes of childbed fever.
D)

He changed birthing procedures so that women gave birth on their sides and were assisted by doctors that disinfected their hands.

Question 4 : When determining which hypothesis or model to accept, scientists should

Question 4 options:

A)

choose the most popular explanation.
B)

choose the hypothesis supported by evidence.
C)

go with their favorite hypothesis (as long as it's still shiny).
D)

support the most recent hypothesis to be proposed as a plausible explanation.

Question 5: What happens when new evidence does not support a current scientific hypothesis (or current understanding of a natural phenomenon)?

Choose all that are correct.

Question 5 options:

A)

We should re-evaluate the current understanding and possibly reject past ideas based on the new evidence.
B)

The scientific community labels the scientist that collected the evidence as an unreliable quack.
C)

Scientists throw out the new evidence since obviously the experimental design must be flawed.
D)

Scientists should test the idea in a novel way (inspire new ideas) to determine if the new evidence is consistent with a new understanding.

Question 6: To gain entrance to the Science club, you should:

Question 6 options:

A)

fabricate your data often to support your favorite hypothesis.
B)

take all the credit for yourself.
C)

check all the boxes on the science checklist. If you miss even one, you're denied your scientist ID card.
D)

behave scientifically (preferably in a lab coat).

Question 7 : Choose all the answers that correctly complete the following statement:

Scientists interact with the scientific community by...

Question 7 options:

A)

speaking at conferences.
B)

locking themselves in ivory towers.
C)

being inspired by other scientists and testing their ideas in new and novel ways.
D)

only listening to NPR (National Public Radio) on Science Fridays.
E)

publishing in science journals.

Question 8: Which of the following questions CANNOT be answered using the scientific method?

Question 8 options:

A)

How does migration affect the reproductive success of monarch butterflies?
B)

Should local communities invest money in sustainable farming practices instead of new infrastructure (e.g., roads and bridges)?
C)

How does coastal development affect wetland biodiversity (number and types of organisms present)?
D)

Is water a toxic substance?
E)

Do pesticides cause developmental changes in frogs?

Question 9 : Choose all of the following answers that correctly completes the following statement:

Representing the scientific method in a linear, cookbook sequence:

Question 9 options:

A)

incorporates the important concept of testing ideas with evidence
B)

does not capture how science really works.
C)

is too simplified.
D)

incorrectly implies that there is an endpoint to science. (If the scientific method is a simple progression, once a valid conclusion is reached, science is done!)

show calculation for points please.

Multiple Choice questions 2 points each

1. Creatinine clearance is a commonly used estimate of:

A)Glomerular filtration rate (mL/min)

B)Tubular secretion (mL/min)

C)Total renal blood flow (mL/min)

D)Renal reabsorption (cc/min)

E)Steady state muscle breakdown rate (mcg/min)

2. Which of the following is not a measure of exposure?

a) Peak concentration

b) Time of maximum concentration

c) Area under the concentration time curve

d) Concentration measured 2 hours after dose administration

3. A clinically impactful drug interaction based upon inhibition of cytochrome P450 is most likely when:

a)The drug is metabolized by multiple enzymes

b)The drug has a narrow therapeutic index

c)There is limited variation in interindividual enzyme activity in the involved enzyme

d)The drug is a substrate of P-glycoprotein

e)All of the above

2. Why are dose-response (or concentration-response) analyses recommended for drug approval by a regulatory agency?

a) To increase the potential for adverse reactions in clinical trials in order to fully characterize the safety profile

b) To prolong the length of time it takes for drug approval

c) To maximize the likelihood that optimal drug dose will be prescribed after approval

d) To reduce the costs of clinical trials

e) To explore all possible disease state indications at time of initial approval

5. Which of the following is true of inhaled delivery of an aerosolized drug suspension?

a)An ideal drug would have low first pass hepatic metabolism to maximize systemic absorption

b)In contrast to milled powders, drugs in suspension are dosed in partial pressures

c)Efficiency of drug delivery by multi-dose inhalers is highly dependent upon patient technique

d)Typical multi-dose inhalers produce a very homogenous particle size of drug

e)Nebulized delivery of drug by face mask is not appropriate for children, demented or obtunded patients

6. The apparent volume of distribution (Vd):

a)Does not represent an actual physiologic volume

b)Can never be higher than total body water volume

c)Can be determined using only the half life of a drug

d)Will be large in a drug that is highly bound to serum proteins

e)Is usually small in drugs that require a loading dose

7. Which of the following characteristics of a drug make it most amenable to removal by hemodialysis?

a)Large volume of distribution

b)Large molecular weight

c)Strong protein binding

d)Good water solubility

8. Which is the best predictor of need for dosage adjustment in hepatic disease?

Child Pugh score

Portal splanchnic pressure (as measured by peripheral heart rate)

Degree of fibrosis and shunt on ultrasound

Levels of liver function tests

There is no single marker of hepatic dysfunction

9. Fexofenadine is not metabolized but is a P-glycoprotein (Pgp) substrate. How does St. Johnรขย€ย™s Wort cause decreased serum fexofenadine levels?

Inhibition of gut Pgp

Induction of gut PgP

Induction of CNS Pgp

Inhibition of biliary Pgp

None of the above

10. Which of the following is the best measure of renal function?

a)age

b)random urine creatinine concentration

c)spot plasma creatinine concentration

d)estimated creatinine clearance (Cockroft Gault)

e)Child-Pugh

11. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is the best measure of total systematic drug exposure after an oral dose?

a)Cmax

b)Elimination half life

c)Absorption rate constant

d)Area under the curve

e)Clearance

12. Which of the following is a mechanism that would cause a drug to have zero order elimination in humans?

a)Ultra-metabolizer genotype

b)Enterohepatic recirculation

c)High serum protein binding

d)Saturation of the prime metabolic enzyme

e)Sustained release version of a drug

13. Phase II metabolic metabolism:

a)Involves the covalent binding of a polar side chain

B)Always follows phase 1 metabolism

c)Employs breaking of aromatic ring structures

d)Is not subject to pharmacogenetic variation

e)Occurs exclusively pre-systemically, in the gut lumen

14. Which is not a high profile FDA Initiative?

a)Orphan Disease Act

b)Childhood Vaccine Act

c)Rare Disease Act

d)Breakthrough Drug Designation

15 In explaining risk posed by pharmaceutical R&D, which is not a development risk:

a)Patient population

b)Clinical endpoint

c)Predictability of trials

d)Competitive advantage

16. The key pivotal trials undertaken as part of the IND are part of which phase of the clinical drug development process?

a)Phase I

b)Phase II

c)Phase III

d)Phase IV

17. Which is not an EU Regulatory Process

a)Centralized Procedure

b)Certificate of Pharmaceutical Product Procedure

c)De-Centralized Procedure

d)Mutual Recognition

18. The role of experimental medicine strategies is to

a)Explore disease and drug biology to support go/no go decisions

b)Generate and fully validate biomarkers for FDA approval

c)Primarily to co-develop diagnostic tests to be filed with the NDA (new drug application)

d)Harmonize FDA and EMA phase 1 requirements

e)Define the pharmacokinetics of exploratory drugs in healthy volunteers or selected patient populations

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