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burgundygrasshopper471Lv1

22 Mar 2020

(a) Which of the following are required characteristics of an isotope to be used as a fuel in a nuclear power reactor? (i) It must emit gamma radiation. (ii) On decay, it must release two or more neutrons. (iii) It must have a half-life less than one hour. (iv) It must undergo fission upon the absorption of a neutron. (b) What is the most common fissionable isotope in a commercial nuclear power reactor?

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Jamar FerryLv2

24 May 2020

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(a) Which of the following statements about the uranium used in nuclear reactors is or are true? (i) Natural uranium has too little ²³⁵U to be used as a fuel. (ii) ²³⁸U cannot be used as a fuel because it forms a supercritical mass too easily. (iii) To be used as fuel, uranium must be enriched so that it is more than 50% ²³⁵U in composition. (iv) The neutron-induced fission of ²³⁵U releases more neutrons per nucleus than fission of ²³⁸U. (b) Which of the following statements about the plutonium shown in the chapter-opening photograph explains why it cannot be used for nuclear power plants or nuclear weapons? (i) None of the isotopes of Pu possess the characteristics needed to support nuclear fission chain reactions. (ii) The orange glow indicates that the only radioactive decay products are heat and visible light. (iii) The particular isotope of plutonium used for RTGs is incapable of sustaining a chain reaction. (iv) Plutonium can be used as a fuel, but only after it decays to uranium.

tealworm932

1. (1 point) What might be damaged by ionizing radiation? * paper soft tissue wood lead

2. (1 point) When an atom emits an beta particle, what is the change in the atomic number? * no change decrease by 1 decrease by 2 increase by 1 increase by 2

3. (1 point) What is the change in atomic mass caused by the emission of gamma radiation? * no change decrease by 1 decrease by 2 increase by 1 increase by 2

4. (1 point) Which of the following materials would effectively stop gamma radiation? * one foot of concrete single sheet of paper thin pieces of wood three inches of lead

5. (1 point) When the ratio of neutron-to-proton dictates that a neutron must break down it will form _________. * A helium nucleus An alpha particle A proton and an electron Two protons

6. (1 point) What determines the type of decay if a nucleus falls outside the band of stability? * the ratio of alpha particles to beta particles the ratio of beta particles to alpha particles the ratio of neutrons to protons the ratio of protons to neutrons

7. (1 point) A positron is emitted when ____________. * an alpha particle forms a beta particle forms proton converts to a neutron neutron converts to a proton

8. (1 point) How does an atom with too few neutrons relative to protons undergo radioactive decay? * by converting proton to a neutron by converting a neutron to a proton by emitting an alpha particle by emitting a beta particle

9. (1 point) How much of the original sample would remain after two half lives have past? * There would be nothing of the original left There would be half of the original sample still there There would be one quarter of the sample still present There would only be one eighth of the original sample still present

10. (1 point) What is the approximate half life of carbon- 14? * hundreds of years thousands of years million of years billion of years

11. (1 point) A reaction where a heavier nucleus splits into smaller nuclei is called ___________. * a chemical reaction background radiation fission fusion

12. (1 point) __________ and ___________ are used as moderators to capture neutrons in a nuclear reactor. * Cadmium and other metal Carbon and water Liquid sodium and water Plutonium and neptunium

13. (1 point) For a person working in a place where they might be exposed to radiation a _________ is routinely used to check their exposure. * film badge Geiger counter moderating rod scintillation counter

14. (1 point) Radioisotopes are used to do all of the following except __________. * analyze matter. diagnose medical problems. improve the flavor of food. treat diseases. study plant growth. Open response questions: Answer the following with complete sentences or if math is involve show the work

15. (3 point) The radioisotope radon-222 has a half-life of 3.8 days. How much of a 198.6 g sample of radon -222 would be left after approximately 23 days? ( Show your work) * Your answer

16. (3 point) How can an element be artificially transmuted? Give an example that has an element and what it is transmuted into. * Your answer

17. (4 point) Why does the mass and charge of an alpha particle make it less penetrating than a beta or gamma? Discuss both the mass and the charge(2 points each). *

Multiple Choice questions 2 points each

1. Creatinine clearance is a commonly used estimate of:

A)Glomerular filtration rate (mL/min)

B)Tubular secretion (mL/min)

C)Total renal blood flow (mL/min)

D)Renal reabsorption (cc/min)

E)Steady state muscle breakdown rate (mcg/min)

2. Which of the following is not a measure of exposure?

a) Peak concentration

b) Time of maximum concentration

c) Area under the concentration time curve

d) Concentration measured 2 hours after dose administration

3. A clinically impactful drug interaction based upon inhibition of cytochrome P450 is most likely when:

a)The drug is metabolized by multiple enzymes

b)The drug has a narrow therapeutic index

c)There is limited variation in interindividual enzyme activity in the involved enzyme

d)The drug is a substrate of P-glycoprotein

e)All of the above

2. Why are dose-response (or concentration-response) analyses recommended for drug approval by a regulatory agency?

a) To increase the potential for adverse reactions in clinical trials in order to fully characterize the safety profile

b) To prolong the length of time it takes for drug approval

c) To maximize the likelihood that optimal drug dose will be prescribed after approval

d) To reduce the costs of clinical trials

e) To explore all possible disease state indications at time of initial approval

5. Which of the following is true of inhaled delivery of an aerosolized drug suspension?

a)An ideal drug would have low first pass hepatic metabolism to maximize systemic absorption

b)In contrast to milled powders, drugs in suspension are dosed in partial pressures

c)Efficiency of drug delivery by multi-dose inhalers is highly dependent upon patient technique

d)Typical multi-dose inhalers produce a very homogenous particle size of drug

e)Nebulized delivery of drug by face mask is not appropriate for children, demented or obtunded patients

6. The apparent volume of distribution (Vd):

a)Does not represent an actual physiologic volume

b)Can never be higher than total body water volume

c)Can be determined using only the half life of a drug

d)Will be large in a drug that is highly bound to serum proteins

e)Is usually small in drugs that require a loading dose

7. Which of the following characteristics of a drug make it most amenable to removal by hemodialysis?

a)Large volume of distribution

b)Large molecular weight

c)Strong protein binding

d)Good water solubility

8. Which is the best predictor of need for dosage adjustment in hepatic disease?

Child Pugh score

Portal splanchnic pressure (as measured by peripheral heart rate)

Degree of fibrosis and shunt on ultrasound

Levels of liver function tests

There is no single marker of hepatic dysfunction

9. Fexofenadine is not metabolized but is a P-glycoprotein (Pgp) substrate. How does St. Johnâs Wort cause decreased serum fexofenadine levels?

Inhibition of gut Pgp

Induction of gut PgP

Induction of CNS Pgp

Inhibition of biliary Pgp

None of the above

10. Which of the following is the best measure of renal function?

a)age

b)random urine creatinine concentration

c)spot plasma creatinine concentration

d)estimated creatinine clearance (Cockroft Gault)

e)Child-Pugh

11. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is the best measure of total systematic drug exposure after an oral dose?

a)Cmax

b)Elimination half life

c)Absorption rate constant

d)Area under the curve

e)Clearance

12. Which of the following is a mechanism that would cause a drug to have zero order elimination in humans?

a)Ultra-metabolizer genotype

b)Enterohepatic recirculation

c)High serum protein binding

d)Saturation of the prime metabolic enzyme

e)Sustained release version of a drug

13. Phase II metabolic metabolism:

a)Involves the covalent binding of a polar side chain

B)Always follows phase 1 metabolism

c)Employs breaking of aromatic ring structures

d)Is not subject to pharmacogenetic variation

e)Occurs exclusively pre-systemically, in the gut lumen

14. Which is not a high profile FDA Initiative?

a)Orphan Disease Act

b)Childhood Vaccine Act

c)Rare Disease Act

d)Breakthrough Drug Designation

15 In explaining risk posed by pharmaceutical R&D, which is not a development risk:

a)Patient population

b)Clinical endpoint

c)Predictability of trials

d)Competitive advantage

16. The key pivotal trials undertaken as part of the IND are part of which phase of the clinical drug development process?

a)Phase I

b)Phase II

c)Phase III

d)Phase IV

17. Which is not an EU Regulatory Process

a)Centralized Procedure

b)Certificate of Pharmaceutical Product Procedure

c)De-Centralized Procedure

d)Mutual Recognition

18. The role of experimental medicine strategies is to

a)Explore disease and drug biology to support go/no go decisions

b)Generate and fully validate biomarkers for FDA approval

c)Primarily to co-develop diagnostic tests to be filed with the NDA (new drug application)

d)Harmonize FDA and EMA phase 1 requirements

e)Define the pharmacokinetics of exploratory drugs in healthy volunteers or selected patient populations

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