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How can you explain that two countries can gain by trading even if one country is more efficient than the other in the production of every commodity? Consider the laws of absolute and comparative advantage. Provide specific examples to support your answers

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Joshua Stredder
Joshua StredderLv10
28 Sep 2019

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Related questions

40) Consider two countries that can produce rice and other products. If neither country has an absolute advantage in the production of rice, A) there is no possibility that either country will import rice from the other. B) neither country can possibly have a comparative advantage in the production of rice. C) rice will still be traded as long as one of the countries has a comparative advantage in its production. D) the opportunity cost of producing rice must be identical in the two countries. E) then rice should not be produced.

Discuss and explain the difference between the two.

The principle upon which Adam Smith first claimed that free trade benefits all countries. It holds that a country benefits from trade when it produces a particular good at a lower cost (in terms of labor input) than it costs to produce the good in any other country. By specializing the in the production and export of this good and importing goods whose production costs are higher than in other countries, the country can consume more of both goods. In trade theories, this principle was later replaced by the principle of comparative advantages.

Comparative Advantage is first fully stated by David Ricardo in the early nineteenth century, this concept holds that a country has a comparative advantage in a good if it can produce that good more cheaply than it can produce other goods. By specializing in the production of goods in which it holds a comparative advantage and importing the other goods, the country can consume more of all goods. In contrast to Adam Smith, therefore, this principle states that a country need not have an absolute advantage in any good to benefit from trade. The principle provides a powerful justification for liberal international trade by asserting that all countries benefit from such trade.

England and Scotland both produce scones and sweaters. Suppose that an English worker can produce 50 scones per hour or 1 sweater per hour. suppose that a Scottish worker can produce 40 scones per hour or 2 sweaters per hour.

Q1.which country has the absolute advantage in the production of each good? Which country has the comparative advantage??

Q2. If England and Scotland decide to trade, which commodity will Scotland trade to England?? Explain

Q3. If a Scotland worker could produce only 1 sweater per hour, would Scotland still gain from trade? Would England still gain from trade? Explain

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