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Problem

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Textbook Expert
Textbook ExpertVerified Tutor
9 Nov 2021

Given information

We have
 
  
 
F and G be any two antiderivatives of f on I
 

Step-by-step explanation

Step 1.
We have
 
  
 
F and G be any two antiderivatives of f on I
  
 
So...
 
  
    
 
In  interval I according to Lagrange´s mean value theorem we have atleast one point α
 
  
 
We have from (1)
 
  
 
So we have
 
  
 
From (1) we have
 
  
 
Hence antiderivative of 0 being H(x), we get
 
 
Hence we have
 
  
 
 
Since G(x) is an antiderivative of f(x) we have proved Theorem 1 from above.

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