Textbook ExpertVerified Tutor
9 Nov 2021
Given information
We have
F and G be any two antiderivatives of f on I
Step-by-step explanation
Step 1.
We have
F and G be any two antiderivatives of f on I
So...
In interval I according to Lagrange´s mean value theorem we have atleast one point α
We have from (1)
So we have
From (1) we have
Hence antiderivative of 0 being H(x), we get
Hence we have
Since G(x) is an antiderivative of f(x) we have proved Theorem 1 from above.